Do you think death is random?

Mark Quayle

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But you seem to eliminate a genuine choice for man? COuld you explain how you perceive God in regards to salvation damnation?

Maybe I didn't say that the chain of cause-and-effect governs all outcomes, following first cause. Even if there is no first cause, it still governs all things, hence, all things are caused; add in first cause, and it is no different --all things are still governed, hence, all things (except first cause) are caused. Genuine choice is the same either way, God or no God at the beginning of the chain of causation.

God, as First Cause, necessarily caused all things. Once that is established, it follows that, as Omnipotent Creator, he created all things and none of it governs him.

God's creatures are not endowed with the ability to act uninfluenced, as most will agree. Yet somehow we balk, we get upset when told that God caused every one of those influences. We quickly declare independence, because to do otherwise seems to mean we are robots. WHY? Like I said, take God clear out of the picture --are our choices caused or not? Yes they are. Add God to the picture --nothing has changed as to our choices.

But to a more solid point, God, Omnipotent, Creator, First Cause, created for a reason. The taking to himself of a people whose adoration and praise means something to him. A people made in his own image, a part of himself, bone of his bone and flesh of his flesh. A people worthy of his attentions and love-- not because THEY attained the status, but because he loved them and changed them into that for which he made them. These are no angels, but above the angels.

The point that they are not of themselves worthy, but only as he has designated, is an important one, and the gospel of grace depends on it. The people of God are at once the Elect, the Church, the Bride of Christ, and several other things.

As I have said elsewhere, it is difficult for my mind to see how God could make anything that is 'else' than himself, but that that 'else' can rebel against its own creator is outrageous to my understanding, but not illogical --just indigestible.

These rebellious are made for a purpose too, and that is, to put it one way, for the education of the Elect. Romans 1 says they are without excuse, Romans 9 says they were made for that purpose, and that is for God's use: to show his patience, his justice, his wrath against sin, his glory. Romans 1 does not say they are without excuse because they have the ability to act without causation, but because they choose, rejecting what they already know to be true. Romans 9 makes no excuse for God --he doesn't need one.

To reduce your spiritual indigestion, try to understand God's intent here. The two are not equal in purpose. He does not do this: "to make some for the purpose of damnation and some for the purpose of exaltation" all in one breath as if the two predestinations were equal in God's purposes. No, one of them is his prime purpose, second only to his purpose of glorifying himself. The other is part of what it takes to produce the first group --the Elect. You may be sure, as a good theology will show: That God has no wasted effort.
 
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aiki

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Except that the English use of 'foreknowledge' is not the same as the Hebrew and Greek.

Care to expand a bit here? This is to say something while essentially saying nothing.

Furthermore, the notion that God is under obligation to other free agents is a denial of who God is.

??? Did I say God was under obligation to free agents?

He owes nobody anything.

And in those instances where He has made a promise to His creatures?

What he does, he does because it is what he does --it is of his own nature.

Yes, and? Have I written otherwise?

He need not wait for someone to, of their own free will, finally 'let the tumblers of the lock into place'.

And if He has decreed and instituted the free agency of His creatures? Should He honor His own decree and allow their free agency to be fully exercised?
 
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Mark Quayle

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Did I say God was under obligation to free agents?

Nope, though you imply it with your notion of free agency. But this was just part of what I was trying to say.

And in those instances where He has made a promise to His creatures?

This is what I was trying to get across --you see obligation, when it is merely God acting according to his nature. HE is the source of those things, not done under obligation, but under his own generated choice --long before his promise was heard.

Yes, and? Have I written otherwise?

This was a part of a whole line of reasoning. Lol, why do you keep interrupting?

And if He has decreed and instituted the free agency of His creatures? Should He honor His own decree and allow their free agency to be fully exercised?

I'm curious to see the document

Care to expand a bit here? This is to say something while essentially saying nothing.
Then there's nothing to expand. Carry on.
 
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Hmm

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God's creatures are not endowed with the ability to act uninfluenced, as most will agree.

There are always competing influences on our decisions but to infer from that that we have no inherent freedom at all in what we decide is a pretty big philosophical leap. Our common lived experience and biblical truth tells us that we do have mental autonomy, which is why adults who are deemed responsible are held accountantable in law.
Obviously we're not free to do anything we want to like float like a butterfly but that doesn't mean that we have no freedom at all.
 
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Strong in Him

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Who said anything about a disembodied and disinterested Spirit?

No one - I was making the point that God is personal.
We are told he is our heavenly Father; we can talk to him, and he with us, he cares for us, listens to us, guides us etc.

You place substance in the events and flavor of the things of this passing mist of temporal existence.

Such as?

Dogs and monkeys, even robots, can choose. So what?

So we can choose and God does not dictate, nor make us do, eat, wear, say certain things.

But you want to claim that by being made in his image it means actual autonomy --separate ability apart from Christ??

I'm saying that God gave us the ability to choose.
If you ask someone to choose something, you shouldn't do anything to influence that choice. If you asked a child to choose between 2 activities, but heavily promoted one of them/made it clear that one of them was safer, cheaper or whatever; if they chose that one, it might not have been because they wanted it but to keep you happy.
There are many people in the world who would say that they chose, and did, things simply to keep someone else happy, or because they feared rejection/punishment if they didn't.

We will find in Heaven, I believe, that we had not been complete persons, until we see him as he is,

I believe that we aren't fully whole and fully saved until we die, certainly - because we will be free from pain, illness and sin, free to fully be the people we were made to be and with our Maker forever.

and KNOW our dependence on him for every detail.

Depends what you mean by "dependence on him for every detail."
Yes, we depend on God for power, peace, salvation, joy etc - we are to do things in his strength, not our own. But he also gave us minds, intelligence and wills. God doesn't tell us what colour clothes he wants us to wear on a particular day; he may lead us to live, work or worship in a certain area, I don't believe he minds, or dictates, what sort of house we buy, what colour we paint it, what plants we choose to put in the garden etc.

You might notice, however, that I did not say we Christians will be punished if we mess up

No - but you did say "we", and this is a Christian discussion board.
It wasn't clear to me if you meant "unbelievers get what they deserve" or whether you were one of these people who believe that if Christians get ill, for example, it is a punishment for sin. I apologise if that is not the case, but there are those who believe that God corrects and transforms us in this way.

I know it is easy to react to something you read as soon as you read it, but really, you should try to keep connected what was written connected.

I'm saying that it wasn't clear to me what the word "we" referred to; that's all.
 
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chad kincham

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You say, "Assuming all causes of everything is God, is an assumption based on incorrect doctrine." It's also a misrepresented doctrine. 'God causes all things' is not the same as 'all causes of everything is God'. 'God caused that sin be' is simple logic. God being first cause, and omniscient, implies intent. It also logically follows that first cause began (at least) whatever else follows.

But, 'God caused that sin be', does not at all imply that sin was not caused by other effects down the chain of causation. Satan began it, Satan rebelled. God, outrageously to my mind --I cannot even now understand how it was possible-- created beings that can rebel against their own creator! God uses means to accomplish his ends. Almost all effects are also causes. So there are other causes, down the chain from first cause.

An admittedly poor and incomplete example, to show my point: Rather than have my dog, as is his habit, jump up on me while his feet are muddy, I will train him while his feet are not muddy; when tempted, he will jump up on me, and I will correct him then. Does that mean I tempted him, or that he had no choice --that I forced him to jump up on me? No! HE jumped up on me. I chose the time and place for him to do his own will, and as I planned, he did exactly what I expected.

So Satan is indeed the father of sin --not God-- and Calvinism says no different.

Except that per the Westminster confession, every single thing that happens, bar none, has been decreed by God, in hyper cal=inism.

That means God decreed that Lucifer would fall, that 1/3 of the angels would fall, decreed that Adam and Eve would sin, and is therefore the author of sin.

That’s just for starters.
 
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FutureAndAHope

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Maybe I didn't say that the chain of cause-and-effect governs all outcomes, following first cause.....

In reply, I have thought this through and responded.

Predestination is often taken too far, so that it negates free will, or man’s choices. The Predestination discussed here is related to God’s overarching plan, and makes suggestions of ways to understand this topic, within a framework of free will.

Traditional Calvinistic predestination assumes that every choice that man makes is dictated to by God. Both good and bad choices flow from God’s divine causation or will. It assumes that an elect or select few are ordained, prechosen for salvation and the rest are ordained to damnation by God’s choice. In such a scenario there is no such thing as free will we just seem to be making choices. This idea comes primarily from the following scriptures, which I wish to sink, in light of other scripture. Let’s start with the rather long passage.


Romans 9:11-22 (For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works, but of him that calleth, It was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger. As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated. What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid. For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy. For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth. Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus? Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour? What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,


If this passage is taken alone, we would easily side with Calvinistic thinking. We will further strengthen the position of classic predestination, using the following scripture.


Romans 8:28-30 And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose. For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.


Ok, so we see God elected a plan for Jacob and Esau, choosing Jacob to fulfill the royal line to Christ, and cutting of Esau line from the divine purpose, they having not yet done any good or evil. We see God hardens some, and softens others. Pharoah was hardened, raised up, so God could show His power against him. The question is asked how does God find fault, if it was His will to begin with, for “who has resisted His will”. Ok, let’s all become Calvinists. Not before I put forward a case against it. We know from the Bible, that “God is love”, in general if you read the Bible you see a fair minded God, who asks us to “love one another”, to “do unto others as you would have them do unto you”; all in all God seems fair. The verses above seem far from fair, God hardens some, sending them to hell with no chance at all. That does not seem like, the God who says “Do unto others as you would have them do unto you”. But let’s go right back to the verse about God hardening Pharoah. What does it say?


What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,


Paul says inspired of the Holy Spirit, God “endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath”, what does he mean by that? Well,

2 Peter 3:9 says: The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.

God is long-suffering, not willing that any perish, but that all, and I stress all, should come to repentance. If we flow this thought through the passage in Romans. It could be stated this way: “what if God wanting to show His wrath against the vessels of dishonor, had previously endured their behavior, i.e. attempted to bring them to salvation, but they had resisted it, so God gave them over to a plan that displayed His wrath” This fits with


Romans 1:20-22 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse: Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened. Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,


What happened in the above scripture? God gave evidence to man, evidence of Him. But some chose to not glorify God, so He gave them over to a darkened heart. This fits with the long suffering passage, and backs up the idea that darkness of heart come with rejection of God’s evidences.


So yes God does have a plan for each of us, He foreknew, those who would be created, so in that sense He predestined us to salvation. But those who are vessels of wrath, God also planned a negative outcome for them, but only after his long suffering waited for them to repent, and they consistently refused. The thought that God willed both good and bad entirely cannot be true, for if He did that, nothing would take God by surprise. But we see in:


Genisis 6:6-7 And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart. And the LORD said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that I have made them.


What did that just say, God saw how man responded to Him, and he was sorry He had made man? Yes God wished He did not create man. So God did not know how man would respond to Him. This now leans us in the direction of free will, for God not to know an outcome, there must be a free will element to man. So how does this fit with God’s foreknowledge? Let’s say you have a dice, and roll it. It has 6 possible outcomes. If you roll it again the next time, it has the same six outcomes. If you record each outcome, maybe 5 first, then a 3, then a 2. Let’s say we wanted to record all possible outcomes that end in a 6 being rolled on the fourth try. It could be 1, 4, 3, 6 or it could be 2, 5, 1, 6. We would find there are many combinations but they all end in a 6. Let’s say 6 is our end game, it matters not what happens in between the first roll, and the last, as long as our last roll is a 6. Let’s say 6 represents the end of creation when Jesus returns. It matters not what happens in between as long as Christ returned. We can look at the numbers in between as free will choices, the freedom to have any number of outcomes does not affect our end game, as long as we force the last number to be a 6. I believe that God has set end game points in every person’s life, a point of decision, an important event, a good event or story ordained by God. How we respond to these important events will determine the path for our life. I am a computer programmer by trade, and have studied Artificial Intelligence, there is one branch of knowledge that can predict all possible out comes in a simulation, or game, the computer can essentially know with in a system of free choices, all possible outcomes. God is a lot faster, and smarter than a simple computer. The only way however that the computer can “know” the end from the beginning, is to set constraints on choices, making stories, or outcomes that are restricted, simplifies computation. For God to know every person, every event that could potentially happen He would need to put constraints on man’s stories. And we see this is what God has done:


Act_17:26-27 And hath made of one blood all nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation; That they should seek the Lord, if haply they might feel after him, and find him, though he be not far from every one of us:


So let’s return to Genesis, where God repented of creating man. Yes He has a system of restricting choices, but He did not know the choices would lead to such a low point. So He wished He had not started the creation.


Let’s look at Acts, what is the point of God restricting choices? “That they should seek the Lord, if haply they might feel after him, and find him”, God want’s us all to find Jesus. Yes, God has set end game moments, He has predetermined points of history that will never change, that are predestined. But there are inconsequential choices that occur in between. You may be destined to meet someone who needs Jesus in one day, or two. But God does not care how many coffees you have in between. Yes God knew you before you were created, He knows every thing that will happen, but we need to make choices that lead to good not bad outcomes.
 
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Butterball1

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In the early parts of my life I kind of assumed it was just bad luck if someone died but the more I lived the more I realized we don't control when we go. I now realize that God actually controls when we go and I personally believe he planned out every little detail of our lives. What do you guys think?

I raised you up for this very purpose, that I might display my power in you and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth.
It is not in God's nature to preordain men to sin (murder, steal, adultery, etc) then God punish men for the sin God forced them to commit.

======

I notice that Romans 9:17 says God had a twofold purpose with Pharoah;
1) dispay His power over Pharoah
2) magnify His name in all the earth

I do NOT see anywhere in the Bible God saying His purpose with Pharoah was to force Pharoah to disobey against his own will whereby God could only then accomplish the 2 above things. God is not that weak, unjust whereby He can only accomplish His will by forcing men to do wrong against their will.

All God had to do was command Pharaoh to let the people go. That created a circumstance of putting Pharoah in a position to have to choose to obey God or not. If Pharaoh had chosen to obey then God accomplished His twofold purpose. Yet Pharaoh of his own free will chose to disobey and God used his powers (plagues) to show His power over Pharaoh to where Phraoah then choose to obey and God's name magnified. God then accomplished His twofold purpose by using Pharaoh's own choice to disobey.

Since God created the circumstance in putting Pharaoh in a position to have to choose to obey or not, it's in that sense God is said to have hardened his heart. Much like if you let a vicious dog out of an enclosure and that dog attacked and injured another person putting that person in the hospital. That person most likely will get an attorney and sue the dog?? No, that injured victim will sue YOU. How can the victim sue you when you never laid a finger upon the victim? Because you created the circumstance that led the person being injured therefore it will be argued in court since you created the circumstance that led to the person being injured that you in fact caused the injury. Just as it might be said God caused Pharaoh to disobey in creating a circumstance putting Pharaoh in a position to have to choose. In the same sense God gave the Jews under the OT law statutes and ordinances they did not like and therefore did not keep. God is then said to have closed their eyes and ears by giving them what they did not want or like. In reality, they closed their own eyes and ears. In the same sense God gave mankind His word, the Bible, whereby it puts each person in the circumstance to have to choose and accept His word or not whether mankind knows this or not or likes it or not. Those then that reject that word, then it can in that sense be said God caused them to disobey, closing their eyes and ears to His word by creating the circumstnace in giving them something they did not want or like.

If God had left Pharaoh alone then Pharaoh would not have been put in the circumstance to obey or not in letting the people go. But God has to right to put men in various circumstances, it's within His power and sovereignty to do so. So the issue is NOT God putting men in circumstances but the issue is and always has been is how do men react. Jonah 3 the King of Nineveh reacted positively by repenting. Pharaoh reacted negatively by disobeying. God's predetermined course of action He follows is to have mercy upon those that obey and no mercy to those that do not obey, Jeremiah 18:8-10. God follows His own predetermined course of action, God does not predetermine men's actions.
 
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Butterball1

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If He did not (ordain everything), no prophesy or promise of His could ever be counted on by us,....

But God has foreknowledge and uses it. God foreknew that if He sent Christ to earth at that particular time, the Jews and Romans of their own free will choice would reject Christ and crucify Him. Therefore by sending Christ to earth at that time God put the Jews and Romans in the position to accept Christ or not. They used their free will to reject Christ and crucify Him and God's will accomplished nad prophecies of Christ came to fruition.

Those Jews and Romans tho't they were doing their own will but unknowingly they accomplished God's will. 1 Corinthians 2:8 Paul wrote about men not really knowing what they were doing when they crucufied Christ..."Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory".
""for had they known it"-the fact that the Jewish and Roman authorities pressed for and allowed Jesus to be crucified was absolute proof that they hadn't grasped God's purpose, the true wisdom. The Bible often mentions the ignorance of the rulers involved in the crucifixion of Christ. (Luke 23:34; Acts 3:17; Acts 13:27).... The leaders of the time, men possessed with "the wisdom of the world", proved themselves so ignorant of God's plan, that God in the flesh stood before them, and they put Him to death! "Caiaphas and the Sanhedrin, (Herod), Pilate and the Roman court saw nothing of the splendor clothing the Lord Jesus as He stood before them." (Gr. Ex. N.T. p. 779)" Dunagan Comm.

Hence God uses men's free will choices to accomplish His own will whereby men can justly be condemned for the choices they make. Therefore Peter could JUSTLY condemned the Jews... "ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain" for THEIR free will choice they made in crucifying Christ. God therefore cannot have culpability in crucifying an innocent man by predetermination but by using men's free will choices God used men's choices to accomplish His will leaving those men accountable for THEIR OWN choices and no culpability upon God forcing things using predetermination.
 
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Butterball1

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God knows the end from the beginning, and knows the number of days everyone will have, but chooses not to be a Calvinistic puppet-master and control freak, by decreeing every single event that happens in our lives.

And He can change.His mind about our circumstances, such as the King God said was going to die soon, but had pity on him and extended his life by fourteen years.

Shalom.
Why the need for God to repent if all has already been predetermined, Jonah 3:10?
 
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Butterball1

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2 Samuel 1:6
"And the young man that told him said, As I happened by chance upon mount Gilboa, behold, Saul leaned upon his spear; and, lo, the chariots and horsemen followed hard after him."

This young man was supposedly by chance with King Saul when Saul leaned up his spear. Saul asked the young man to "Stand, I pray thee, upon me, and slay me: for anguish is come upon me, because my life is yet whole in me." And the young man did so assisting Saul's suicide, euthanasia. Upon hearing this David was angry, rent his clothes and condemned the young man "How wast thou not afraid to stretch forth thine hand to destroy the LORD'S anointed?" David had the young man put to death: David "called one of the young men, and said, Go near, and fall upon him. And he smote him that he died. And David said unto him, Thy blood be upon thy head for thy mouth hath testified against thee, saying, I have slain the LORD'S anointed."

Did God preordain this young Amalekite to fabricate this story only to be put to death by David or was it by free will choice of the Amalekite to make up this story and be executed due to this lie he chose to tell?

Was his lying and dying preplanned, ordained by God whereby God has culpability in his lying and dying or was his death a choice of his own free will? Do men die because of drunk drivers due to God having preplanned men to sin and get drunk and drive or do people die due to a sinful choice made by other men?
 
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Mark Quayle

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There are always competing influences on our decisions but to infer from that that we have no inherent freedom at all in what we decide is a pretty big philosophical leap. Our common lived experience and biblical truth tells us that we do have mental autonomy, which is why adults who are deemed responsible are held accountantable in law.
Obviously we're not free to do anything we want to like float like a butterfly but that doesn't mean that we have no freedom at all.
Who said 'no inherent freedom at all'?

"Mental autonomy" can mean only that we act independent of others, but it cannot mean we act independent of causes. That should be self-evident.

Calvinism admits to actual choice. In fact it insists on it! But logic demands that our choices are caused. There is no discrepancy. We do as we will.
 
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Hmm

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"Mental autonomy" can mean only that we act independent of others, but it cannot mean we act independent of causes. That should be self-evident.

Well it's not, at least to me - I don't even know what it means. What does it mean to say we act independent of others but not of causes?

Calvinism admits to actual choice. In fact it insists on it! But logic demands that our choices are caused.

How can it our choice if it's caused? Mental autonomy means that we make our own decisions.

We do as we will.

And we, not God, decide what we will?
 
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Mark Quayle

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Well it's not, at least to me - I don't even know what it means. What does it mean to say we act independent of others but not of causes?

Other people don't make your decisions, nor even cause your decision, though their influence is part of what causes your decisions --part of why you decide as you do.

Just as an example, no relation to humanity: There is such a thing as an 'autonomous' computer program. It doesn't mean the computer can do anything spontaneously, but only that it operates independently of other computers or other programs. But the computer does not work independently of the programmer. The computer still acts according to its causes. Same word, different use.

How can it our choice if it's caused? Mental autonomy means that we make our own decisions.

There is no claim you don't make your own decisions. You do. The fact that your decisions are caused doesn't negate that. The only autonomy there is in your mind --'mental' indeed, lol.

To be plain, the options before you will only one be chosen per decision, no? So the options were chooseable, but only one could have happened. An oracle might have had intelligence enough to know ahead what would have happened, and through influences even played a part in causing you to choose as you did, but regardless, you were caused, one way or another to choose as you did, always, according to what you most want at that particular moment. You might think thus you are a pawn, but not a robot, because you chose according to your will.

God as the first cause of the chain of causation resulting in the various causes for your decision, is of itself enough reason to say God caused it, because the specificity of results of each cause leading up to that moment is spawned with original creation. As someone put it, rather poetically, the seeds of what we see now around us, were sown at the Big Bang. Everything, subsequent to first cause, is a caused effect. There is no random, no chance but all causation.

But it is more hands-on than that sounds.

And we, not God, decide what we will?

Why not both?
 
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PaulCyp1

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God of course knows when each of us will die, since He see the fullness of time, including that part of time that is future to us. But that doesn't mean He wills us to die at that time. We live in a natural world, and are subject to both the laws of nature and the behaviors of other people. When people choose to reject God's will, bad things happen, sometimes including the deaths of people before the time God intended for them to die. A guy decides to hold up a store, walks in with a gun, and demands cash. When the owner refuses, the robber shoots him, grabs the cash and leaves. Was it the will of God that this man should die on this day? Absolutely not. It was not the will of God that the robber should kill someone, and if he does so, he violates the will of God.
 
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Hmm

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There is such a thing as an 'autonomous' computer program. It doesn't mean the computer can do anything spontaneously, but only that it operates independently of other computers or other programs. But the computer does not work independently of the programmer. The computer still acts according to its causes. Same word, different use.

This seems to be saying that we're robots but here:

but regardless, you were caused, one way or another to choose as you did, always, according to what you most want at that particular moment. You might think thus you are a pawn, but not a robot, because you chose according to your will.

you're saying that we're not robots but pawns. How do bishops fit into this?

I agree that we choose according to what we most want. Where we differ, if I understand you correctly, is that you are saying that God determines what those wants or desires are whereas I believe we can reflect on what it is we really want and our desires change accordingly. E.g. we can reassess why we smoke and if we decided we'd be happier not smoking any more, our desire for smoking will go (albeit that we'd have a period of physical withdrawal to go through)

As someone put it, rather poetically, the seeds of what we see now around us, were sown at the Big Bang. Everything, subsequent to first cause, is a caused effect. There is no random, no chance but all causation.

Modern physics would disagree with that,
e.g. we know what the half-life of uranium is so if we have a lump of uranium we'd know how long it would take for half its atoms to decay but there is no way of predicting for an individual atom when it will decay - that is undeterminable even in principle.

Why not both?

God's and man's will worked together as one in Jesus but I don't think in anyone else..
 
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Mark Quayle

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It is not in God's nature to preordain men to sin (murder, steal, adultery, etc) then God punish men for the sin God forced them to commit.

Because you say so? But like below, you misrepresent what God is doing, showing only the part you don't like.

Is it not in God's nature to glorify himself, and to show his justice and mercy to the objects of his mercy?

I notice that Romans 9:17 says God had a twofold purpose with Pharoah;
1) dispay His power over Pharoah
2) magnify His name in all the earth

I do NOT see anywhere in the Bible God saying His purpose with Pharoah was to force Pharoah to disobey against his own will whereby God could only then accomplish the 2 above things. God is not that weak, unjust whereby He can only accomplish His will by forcing men to do wrong against their will.

Who is saying God "FORCES" anybody? Do you also claim he "forces" men to exist? But even if he does not ask for permission, he causes them to WILL TO DO as they do. THEY choose to do it. How is that forcing anybody against their will? Even, as with Jonah, he coerces, they still decide, and that according to what they most want at that moment. Their will, their choice.

But notice his right. He doesn't ask permission to bring people into existence, and he doesn't ask permission to take their life. It is all his to do as he will. Yet he is gracious and kind, and you want to say we think he FORCES???

I would certainly, gratefully, thank him for changing my will, self-important, rebellious, and at enmity with Christ!!! He didn't ask for permission when he did it. But to call it "FORCED" is a gross misrepresentation of his gentle tender loving care.



All God had to do was command Pharaoh to let the people go. That created a circumstance of putting Pharoah in a position to have to choose to obey God or not. If Pharaoh had chosen to obey then God accomplished His twofold purpose. Yet Pharaoh of his own free will chose to disobey and God used his powers (plagues) to show His power over Pharaoh to where Phraoah then choose to obey and God's name magnified. God then accomplished His twofold purpose by using Pharaoh's own choice to disobey.

Your equivocations don't improve your narrative. Of course God accomplished absolutely everything he set out to do.

I hope you haven't forgotten that not only Pharoah, but God, hardened Pharoah's heart.

Since God created the circumstance in putting Pharaoh in a position to have to choose to obey or not, it's in that sense God is said to have hardened his heart. Much like if you let a vicious dog out of an enclosure and that dog attacked and injured another person putting that person in the hospital. That person most likely will get an attorney and sue the dog?? No, that injured victim will sue YOU. How can the victim sue you when you never laid a finger upon the victim? Because you created the circumstance that led the person being injured therefore it will be argued in court since you created the circumstance that led to the person being injured that you in fact caused the injury. Just as it might be said God caused Pharaoh to disobey in creating a circumstance putting Pharaoh in a position to have to choose. In the same sense God gave the Jews under the OT law statutes and ordinances they did not like and therefore did not keep. God is then said to have closed their eyes and ears by giving them what they did not want or like. In reality, they closed their own eyes and ears. In the same sense God gave mankind His word, the Bible, whereby it puts each person in the circumstance to have to choose and accept His word or not whether mankind knows this or not or likes it or not. Those then that reject that word, then it can in that sense be said God caused them to disobey, closing their eyes and ears to His word by creating the circumstnace in giving them something they did not want or like.

You say: "Since God created the circumstance in putting Pharaoh in a position to have to choose to obey or not, it's in that sense God is said to have hardened his heart." How do you know it is in that sense? Because you say so?

I don't disagree that the mere command serves to harden hearts set against God. But that is not all God does, to harden those to whom he has chosen to do that. Nor do I deny that they deserve all they get --but it is obvious God chose (again, not denying they also chose).

If God had left Pharaoh alone then Pharaoh would not have been put in the circumstance to obey or not in letting the people go. But God has to right to put men in various circumstances, it's within His power and sovereignty to do so. So the issue is NOT God putting men in circumstances but the issue is and always has been is how do men react. Jonah 3 the King of Nineveh reacted positively by repenting. Pharaoh reacted negatively by disobeying. God's predetermined course of action He follows is to have mercy upon those that obey and no mercy to those that do not obey, Jeremiah 18:8-10. God follows His own predetermined course of action, God does not predetermine men's actions.

No mercy on those who disobey? Bears up with longsuffering those who hate him. He took the firstborn, he did not kill the one man who obviously thoroughly deserved it --Pharoah

You have not shown that God does not predetermine anything; you have only shown that men are without excuse. With that, we thoroughly agree.

You say: "So the issue is NOT God putting men in circumstances but the issue is and always has been is how do men react." So why are you arguing? We agree. --Or do you mean, the issue is not who gets the glory, but who gets the blame?
 
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Mark Quayle

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But God has foreknowledge and uses it. God foreknew that if He sent Christ to earth at that particular time, the Jews and Romans of their own free will choice would reject Christ and crucify Him. Therefore by sending Christ to earth at that time God put the Jews and Romans in the position to accept Christ or not. They used their free will to reject Christ and crucify Him and God's will accomplished nad prophecies of Christ came to fruition.

Those Jews and Romans tho't they were doing their own will but unknowingly they accomplished God's will. 1 Corinthians 2:8 Paul wrote about men not really knowing what they were doing when they crucufied Christ..."Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory".
""for had they known it"-the fact that the Jewish and Roman authorities pressed for and allowed Jesus to be crucified was absolute proof that they hadn't grasped God's purpose, the true wisdom. The Bible often mentions the ignorance of the rulers involved in the crucifixion of Christ. (Luke 23:34; Acts 3:17; Acts 13:27).... The leaders of the time, men possessed with "the wisdom of the world", proved themselves so ignorant of God's plan, that God in the flesh stood before them, and they put Him to death! "Caiaphas and the Sanhedrin, (Herod), Pilate and the Roman court saw nothing of the splendor clothing the Lord Jesus as He stood before them." (Gr. Ex. N.T. p. 779)" Dunagan Comm.

Hence God uses men's free will choices to accomplish His own will whereby men can justly be condemned for the choices they make. Therefore Peter could JUSTLY condemned the Jews... "ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain" for THEIR free will choice they made in crucifying Christ. God therefore cannot have culpability in crucifying an innocent man by predetermination but by using men's free will choices God used men's choices to accomplish His will leaving those men accountable for THEIR OWN choices and no culpability upon God forcing things using predetermination.
This is amazing. You position 'predetermination' to mean man has no will. God determines ahead. THAT is predetermination. Here you have been positing predetermination, and demonstrating how it works with man's will --the whole time arguing against yourself!
 
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Mark Quayle

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Why the need for God to repent if all has already been predetermined, Jonah 3:10?
What was predetermined --the destruction of Ninevah, or their repentance? Only one thing ever happens, regardless of the validity of the threat.
 
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St_Worm2

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God therefore cannot have culpability in crucifying an innocent man by predetermination but by using men's free will choices God used men's choices to accomplish His will leaving those men accountable for THEIR OWN choices and no culpability upon God forcing things using predetermination.
Hello Butterball1, I agree with you, which I attempted to make clear (but clearly failed to do so :sorry:) in the post of mine that you quoted an excerpt from.

Perhaps you missed the qualifying phrase that I posited at the bottom of my post? If so, here is 1. the excerpt that you quoted along with 2. the qualifying phase that you did not quote.
God ordains* whatsoever comes to pass (or it does not come to pass ;)).....
*(I believe that God's ordination of all things includes Him ~causing~ some things to occur, ~allowing~ some things to occur, as well ~prohibiting~ some things from occurring, just FYI)
So, His "ordination" of everything that happens does not necessarily mean that He is the "cause" of everything that happens. If He ~caused/forced~ us to sin, for instance, then we could not be justly held to account for the sins that we commit, He would have to be (which is a point that you've already made).

I hope that clears up any confusion? If not, just let me know and I'll try again.

God bless you!

--David
p.s. - God's "ordination" of whatsoever comes to pass is primarily/directly concerned with His sovereignty, not with our free will.
 
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