I always saw that as a symptom of democrats as they attempted to manipulate the south into mimicking the feudalism of Europe......or the caste system of India.....
circa? when do you say this took place?
All the historical evidence points to the opposite being true.
And by "democrats" do You mean all the pre 1970's democrats that turned into republicans because the Democratic Party writ large embraced desegregation and Civil Rights?
See above response.......
Pretty weak response IYAM.
The modern-day conservative movement began with Federalists Alexander Hamilton and John Adams, who argued that for a society to be stable it must have a governing elite, and this elite must be separate both in power and privilege from what Adams referred to as "the rabble." Their Federalist party imploded in the early 19th Century, in large part because of public revulsion over Federalist elitism.
Destroyed by their embrace of this early form of despotism, the Federalists were replaced first in the early 1800s by the short-lived Whigs and then, starting with Lincoln, by the modern-day Republicans, who, after Lincoln's death, firmly staked out their ancestral Federalist/Feudalist position as the party of wealthy corporate and private interests.
The Right wing, since the nations founding, has had a preferred worldview that is decidedly anti-democratic. What conservatives are really arguing for is a return to the three historic forms of tyranny that the Founders and Framers identified, declared war against, and fought and died to keep out of our land. Those tyrants were kings, theocrats, and noble feudal lords.
You yourself appear to have espoused such a worldview in your previous anti democratic comments.... do you likewise claim your personal anti-democratic views are "a symptom of democrat's (turned Republicans) actions in the south", or do you take sole responsibility for them?
