Paul said he was given the g of the uncircumcision, while Peter was given the Gospel of circumcision

dqhall

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7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;

What? How does this even make sense?

did Paul worship the same Jesus?
The Jews observed strict rules of ritual purity and had laws about foods that were clean and unclean (kosher). Some Jews did not want to enter a Gentile house for fear of being made unclean. There are Talmudic writings about their observances of commandments in Deuteronomy and Leviticus. Men were not allowed to sit where a woman sat while in her monthly period. A woman was quarantined for seven days during her period (Tractate Niddah).

Some of the Jewish Christian brethren were of the opinion that the Gentiles should be converted to Judaism and circumcised before being allowed into their fellowships. Paul preached that the Law was to great a burden and they were to be taught things like Jesus taught against fornication, adultery, sexual immorality. Jesus was also against murder, anger and retaliating over a slap to the cheek. They were advised not to sacrifice animals to idols as the Romans and Greeks did. (Acts 15). Paul did not require Gentile circumcision, but promoted faith and belief. The truth is to be trusted, not the lie.
 
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helmut

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So that is the distinction between the 2 gospels in the picture I used.
One Gospel was preached when Jesus was on earth, the other one is preached to Jews first, and gentiles in the second rank, as Paul says in Rom 1:17.

There is no Gospel for J́ews different from a Gospel for Gentiles, it is a matter of time (before/after resurrection) or kairos (Jesus being on earth/in heaven).
 
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paul1149

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Understand that the word "of" does not even appear in that verse in the Greek. Both "Gospel" and (un)circumcision are in the genitive case, and so are linked. The translators had to come up with a preposition to connect them, to make the sentence flow in English, and "of" is the go-to for the genitive case. But it is not the only possible choice. In this case implying that there are two distinct Gospels should be avoided, and so you will find modern translations rendering it "Gospel to the Gentiles.." etc, which in context clearly captures what Paul was saying much better than "of" does.
 
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2BeholdHisGlory

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One Gospel was preached when Jesus was on earth, the other one is preached to Jews first, and gentiles in the second rank, as Paul says in Rom 1:17.

There is no Gospel for J́ews different from a Gospel for Gentiles, it is a matter of time (before/after resurrection) or kairos (Jesus being on earth/in heaven).

I will add to what you posted also showing all nations were in sight when foreseeing the gospel being preached in Abraham (who was a Gentile)

Gal 3:8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

Repentance and remission of sins were to be preached in his name beganing at Jerusalem (then to all nations)

Luke 24:47 And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.

As the Father sent Jesus he said,

Mat 15:24 ...I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

But he also stated he had other sheep not this fold

John 10:16 And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd

Paul clarifies the same for us

Romans 3:29 Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also

And so although Jesus was sent unto the lost sheep of the house of Isreal, he said something once again to them

John 20:21 Then said Jesus to them again, Peace be unto you: as my Father hath sent me, even so send I you.

Because it was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to them, as is pointed out here

Acts 13:46 Then Paul and Barnabas waxed bold, and said, It was necessary that the word of God should first have been spoken to you: but seeing ye put it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of everlasting life, lo, we turn to the Gentiles.

And just as Jesus came a light, they are also set as a light to the Gentiles

Acts 13:27 For so hath the Lord commanded us, saying, I have set thee to be a light of the Gentiles, that thou shouldest be for salvation unto the ends of the earth.

Just as Paul says, Jew first and also to the Greek

Romans 1:6 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.

Just as Jesus said,

Mat 24:14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.

As it was said of Christ concerning his people, being a minister of the circumcision

Mat 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins

And as John says here

1John 2:22 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Ephes 2:13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.

Preaching peace to those which were afar off, and to them that were nigh.

Ephes 2:18 For through him we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father.

Romans 9:24 Even us, whom he hath called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles?

And so although he was sent (as one, by the Father) unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel and come into this world a light. He also says as the Father has sent me even so I send you (which were more then him) and have set the same to be a light of the Gentiles, that they should be for salvation unto the ends of the earth

Romans 15:10 And again he saith, Rejoice, ye Gentiles, with his people.

Where now...

Gal 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.

Romans 3:30 Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.

Gal 5:6 For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love.

I didn't post this for your benefit you appear to reccognize this unless I misunderstood your position.
 
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Guojing

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One Gospel was preached when Jesus was on earth, the other one is preached to Jews first, and gentiles in the second rank, as Paul says in Rom 1:17.

There is no Gospel for J́ews different from a Gospel for Gentiles, it is a matter of time (before/after resurrection) or kairos (Jesus being on earth/in heaven).

As stated in the picture, the gospel preached in Luke 9:6 focused on the identity of Jesus as the Messiah (John 20:31). This gospel was not meant for the gentiles (Matthew 10:5).

While the gospel preached by Paul is for everyone, and focused on Christ's death burial and resurrection (1 Cor 15:1-4).

Those are significant differences that one cannot just sweep aside and pretend they do not exist.
 
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Clare73

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As stated in the picture, the gospel preached in Luke 9:6 focused on the identity of Jesus as the Messiah (John 20:31). This gospel was not meant for the gentiles (Matthew 10:5).

While the gospel preached by Paul is for everyone, and focused on Christ's death burial and resurrection (1 Cor 15:1-4).

Those are significant differences that one cannot just sweep aside and pretend they do not exist.
There is one and the same gospel for all, Jew as well as Gentile.

The gospel was to be taken to Israel first. Jesus came as Israel's Messiah.
Israel's religious leaders rejected the Messiah and his gospel, and had him killed.

They persecuted and stoned Christians.
Whereupon, God cut off Israel, except for a remnant, and gave the gospel to the Gentiles through Paul.
One and the same gospel.
Today, Jews and Gentiles are on the same footing: salvation of a remnant by one and the same gospel--Jesus Christ, and him crucified.
 
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Guojing

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The gospel was to be taken to Israel first. Israel's religious leaders rejected the Messiah and his gospel, and had him killed.
Whereupon, God cut off Israel, except for a remnant, and gave the gospel to the Gentiles through Paul.
Today, Jews and Gentiles are on the same footing: salvation of a remnant.

Yes, you are quoting Romans 11:11, because Israel has fallen, salvation has come to the gentiles.

But it does not follow that we former gentiles are now preached the same gospel of the kingdom that was preached to Israel before their fell.

For one thing, we in the Body of Christ were not promised a physical kingdom like what Israel is promised.
 
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Clare73

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Yes, you are quoting Romans 11:11, because Israel has fallen, salvation has come to the gentiles.
But it does not follow that we former gentiles are now preached the same gospel of the kingdom that was preached to Israel before their fell.
For one thing, we in the Body of Christ were not promised a physical kingdom like what Israel is promised.
Israel was never promised a physical kingdom.
Jesus came to Israel, not to the Gentiles, and he refused the earthly physical kingdom Israel sought (John 6:65).

His kingdom is not of this world, earthly (John 18:36), his kingdom is spiritual, hidden and within (Luke 17:20-21), in the hearts of those where he reigns and rules.
 
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Clare73

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7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;

What? How does this even make sense?

did Paul worship the same Jesus?
The "circumcision" refers to the Jews, and the "uncircumcision" refers to the Gentiles.
Paul was commissioned by Jesus to take the gospel to the (uncircumcised) Gentiles.
Peter was commissioned to take the gospel to the (circumcised) Jews.
 
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Guojing

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Israel was never promised a physical kingdom.
Jesus came to Israel, not to the Gentiles, and he refused the earthly physical kingdom Israel sought (John 6:65).
His kingdom is not of this world, earthly (John 18:36), his kingdom is spiritual, hidden and within (Luke 17:20-21), in the hearts of those where he reigns and rules.

That is because, by the middle of his ministry, Israel had rejected him as the Christ already.

So by then, he started to talk to disciples in parables, so that the nation can be put under the sin of ignorance for rejecting him. (Luke 23:34)

The disciples noticed this change in the middle of his ministry and even asked him why (Matthew 13:10)

If what you said was correct, then the final question that the 11 asked him, before Christ was ascended to heaven would not have made sense (Acts 1:6).

"So, when they had come together, they began asking Him, saying, 'Lord, is it at this time that You are restoring the kingdom to Israel?'

Jesus would have replied "Don't be silly and ask that stupid question, didn't I already tell you there was no such physical kingdom for Israel"?
 
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RDKirk

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Paul was well versed in Greek philosophy. Gamaliel taught his students Greek philosophy so that his pupils would return to their Greek-speaking provinces prepared to be leaders. In addition, Paul absorbed much philosophy while growing up in Tarsus. In his hometown there was an outstanding philosophical academy. The Greek geographer Strabo considered the Tarsus academy to be better than the academies of Athens and Alexandria. We do not know whether Paul received a formal education in philosophy, but it is almost certain that he would have listened to great discussions and debates in the public houses and in the town square where forums were held.

He certainly knew it well enough to quote one of them.

I found Romans an easier read after I had read Aristotle and others. At that point I understood what Paul was doing rhetorically.
 
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Clare73

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That is because, by the middle of his ministry, Israel had rejected him as the Christ already.

So by then, he started to talk to disciples in parables, so that the nation can be put under the sin of ignorance for rejecting him. The disciples noticed this change in the middle of his ministry and even asked him why (Matthew 13:10).
The people sought to give it to him, and he rejected their earthly kingdom. If he came to set up an earthly kingdom, he could have done it in John 6.

The people were going to try to make him king by force. So that they could not, Jesus withdrew to a mountain by himself (John 6:15), to pray (Matthew 14:23).
Jesus did not come to restore the kingdom of Israel.
If what you said was correct, then the final question that the 11 asked him, before Christ was ascended to heaven would not have made sense (Acts 1:6).

Jesus would have replied "Don't be silly and ask that stupid question, didn't I already tell you there was no such physical kingdom"?
No, he completely avoided the question of restoring the kingdom to Israel, because they were referring to his return at his second coming, and he did not know when that would be.

They thought he came to restore Israel as it was in the days of David and Solomon, when it was great among the nations. But Jesus came to set up his own kingdom, which was a kingdom of heaven, not to restore the kingdom of Israel, an earthly kingdom.
 
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Guojing

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He spoke in parables so his enemies, the religious leaders, could not make a case against him for heresy.

The disciples noticed this change in the middle of his ministry and even asked him why (Matthew 13:10)

If what you said was correct, then the final question that the 11 asked him, before Christ was ascended to heaven would not have made sense (Acts 1:6).

Jesus would have replied "Don't be silly and ask that stupid question, didn't I already tell you there was no such physical kingdom"? No, he completely avoided the question of restoring the kingdom to Israel, because it was not for them to know.

They thought he came to restore Israel as it was in the days of David and Solomon, when it was great among the nations. But Jesus came to set up his own kingdom, which was a kingdom of heaven, not to restore the kingdom of Israel, an earthly kingdom. Having been bred since infancy that the Messiah was to be an earthly king, they would not be able to grasp in a few minutes before his ascension any idea of his kingdom as spiritual, so Jesus did not broach it with them at the time. Besides, they would soon understand with the pouring out of the Spirit, and would have no more thoughts of a temporal kingdom, being filled with the expectation of setting up the gospel kingdom in the world.

I see, so you have always regarded the term "kingdom of heaven/God" to Israel as a spiritual kingdom.

Do you happen to also regard us Christians now as "spiritual Israel/Jews" too?
 
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Clare73

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I see, so you have always regarded the term "kingdom of heaven/God" to Israel as a spiritual kingdom.
Jesus said it, not me (Luke 17:20-21).

And it's not Israel's kingdom, it's Jesus' kingdom (John 18:36).
Do you happen to also regard us Christians now as "spiritual Israel/Jews" too?
No. . .I regard both OT and NT saints as the one olive tree of God's people, the church, going all the way back to Abraham (Galatians 3:16, Galatians 3:29; Romans 11:17)

. . .and Israel's destiny, if it does not persist in unbelief, to be grafted back into that one olive tree of God's people, the church (Romans 11:23).

My eschatology and interpretation of prophecy is based on NT teaching, not in personal interpretation of the riddles (dark sayings, Numbers 12:8) of prophecy.
 
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Guojing

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No. . .I regard both OT and NT saints as the one olive tree of God's people, the church going all the way back to Abraham. . .and Israel's destiny, if it does not persist in unbelief to be grafted back into that one olive tree, the church.

I see, since you regard all the OT and NT saints as ONE olive tree the church, can I conclude that you don't separate the Body of Christ from the nation Israel?
 
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Clare73

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I see, since you regard all the OT and NT saints as ONE olive tree the church, can I conclude that you don't separate the Body of Christ from the nation Israel?
Correct. . .authoritative NT teaching does not separate the body of Christ from believing Israel (which does not exist), it presents only one people of God, the one olive tree, of both OT and NT saints.

The NT does not teach a carve out for Israel.

Keeping in mind that Paul received his revelation from Jesus Christ personally, in the third heaven
(2 Corinthians 12:1-5), and we find none of this in the teaching of the NT.
 
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Guojing

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Correct. . .authoritative NT teaching does not separate the body of Christ from believing Israel (which does not exist), it presents only one people of God, the one olive tree.

Yep, that is a very poular doctrine held by many Christians. Thanks for clarifying what you believe in.
 
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Clare73

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Yep, that is a very poular doctrine held by many Christians. Thanks for clarifying what you believe in.
Popular and held by many Christians because it is authoritative NT teaching, which all personal interpretation of unfulfilled prophecy is not, such prophecy also being subject to more than one interpretation.
 
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Guojing

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Popular and held by many Christians because it is authoritative NT teaching, which all personal interpretation of unfulfilled prophecy is not, such prophecy also being subject to more than one interpretation.

Well its understandable to think that the doctrine we hold personally, also happens to be what scripture plainly says.
 
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Clare73

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Well its understandable to think that the doctrine we hold personally, also happens to be what scripture plainly says.
Perhaps you would like to address the NT Scriptures presented which authoritatively teach such.

Assertion without demonstration is without merit.
 
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