Maybe it's time to define, "Fall Away". Is it always the same meaning/use?

Clare73

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"All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out."
"I shall lose none of all that he has given me." John 6:39

You are not reckoning with the content of the three Scriptures I presented, you are avoiding that content and addressing other content you present instead.
The ones the Father gives to Christ are the one who believe per verse 35.

The phrase "I will in no wise cast out" means those who believe that God gives to Christ, Christ will not turn any away regardless of race, sex, ethnicity, social status, etc. It does NOT mean they cannot be lost under any circumstance. Even Calvinst Albert Barnes says of this verse:
"Cast out - Reject, or refuse to save. This expression does not refer to the doctrine of perseverance of the saints, but to the fact that Jesus will not reject or refuse any sinner who comes to him."
EDIT: The fact Barnes says "Jesus will not reject or refuse any sinner who comes to Him" puts a dent and ding in the Calvinistic false ideas of limited atonement
You assume that all sinners on earth will come to him.
But Jesus said that only those will come to him whom the Father enables.

"No one can come to me unless the Father has enabled him." (John 6:65)

"All (which would be only those enabled) that the Father gives me will come to me." (John 6:37)

"I shall lose none of all that he has given me." (John 6:39)
 
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Butterball1

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"I shall lose none of all that he has given me." John 6:39


The ones Christ will not lose are the ones who believe and continue to believe. No verse says CHrist UNconditionally saves, that is, Christ will not save those who quit believing.

I showed from John 17 more than once that Judas was one whom God gave to Christ just as the other Apostles, and that Christ kept Judas just as He did the other Apostles, John 17:6; John 17:12 meaning Judas was given eternal life just as the Apostles John 17:2 yet Judas fell away due to unbelief.

Clare73 said:
You are not reckoning with the content of the three Scriptures I presented, you are avoiding that content and addressing other content you present instead.You assume that all sinners on earth will come to him.
But Jesus said that only those will come to him whom the Father enables.

"No one can come to me unless the Father has enabled him." (John 6:65)

"All (which would be only those enabled) that the Father gives me will come to me." (John 6:37)

"I shall lose none of all that he has given me." (John 6:39)

I have shown how you are reading ideas into these verse that are not in these verses.

God does not randomly or unconditionally give men to Christ. Those that God gives to Christ are those who have a present tense believing and those that continue to believe then Christ will lose none of them. Yet those that quit believing fall away from Christ. Christ did not lose those that quit believing, they lost themselves due to their unbelief.

Per John 6:65, verse 45 explains HOW God draws men to Christ and the drawing is not supernatural, irresistible nor done apart and separate from God's word. John 6:45 shows the drawing is done by the word of God when men have been "TAUGHT' have "HEARD" and have "LEARNED" then men "cometh" (present tense) to Christ. But if they quit coming to Christ, quit believing Christ then they will not be saved.
Again, you are reading ideas into the context that are not there. You are assuming into the text either that it is impossible for men to quit coming and quit believing or you are assuming Christ will go ahead and unconditionally save those who quit coming and believing Him. Either way, you are assuming things into the text that simply are not there.
 
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Mark Quayle

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The ones Christ will not lose are the ones who believe and continue to believe. No verse says CHrist UNconditionally saves, that is, Christ will not save those who quit believing.

I showed from John 17 more than once that Judas was one whom God gave to Christ just as the other Apostles, and that Christ kept Judas just as He did the other Apostles, John 17:6; John 17:12 meaning Judas was given eternal life just as the Apostles John 17:2 yet Judas fell away due to unbelief.



I have shown how you are reading ideas into these verse that are not in these verses.

God does not randomly or unconditionally give men to Christ. Those that God gives to Christ are those who have a present tense believing and those that continue to believe then Christ will lose none of them. Yet those that quit believing fall away from Christ. Christ did not lose those that quit believing, they lost themselves due to their unbelief.

Per John 6:65, verse 45 explains HOW God draws men to Christ and the drawing is not supernatural, irresistible nor done apart and separate from God's word. John 6:45 shows the drawing is done by the word of God when men have been "TAUGHT' have "HEARD" and have "LEARNED" then men "cometh" (present tense) to Christ. But if they quit coming to Christ, quit believing Christ then they will not be saved.
Again, you are reading ideas into the context that are not there. You are assuming into the text either that it is impossible for men to quit coming and quit believing or you are assuming Christ will go ahead and unconditionally save those who quit coming and believing Him. Either way, you are assuming things into the text that simply are not there.
And you listened to none of the rebuttals given to your claim, rejecting them out of hand.

Just for starters: Your math assumes 'given me' means the same and is of the same use in every instance. Why don't you let your math tell you that Christ contradicts himself, then, saying that he loses none, yet later saying he lost Judas?
 
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Butterball1

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Demonstrate this sequence. And if the many are much alike don't fill up the page. We've been through this before.

You are proposing works-based grace --self-contradictory, to put it nicely.

If what you mean by "works based" grace is one does works in one does works to merit grace then show the first post where I said one can work to merit grace. What I have said over and over that God's free gift of grace/salvation is CONDITIONAL, it comes with precondition of obeying God and those that meet the precondition in obeying God are the ones that recevieving the free gift. If grace were UNconditional then all men would universally be saved Titus 2:11. Since all men will not universally be saved PROVES God's free gift of grace is CONDITIONAL. And from cover to cover the Bible gives many examples of men working to meet the precondition (obedience) that GOD places upon His free gift yet NOT THE FIRST TIME is man's obedience ever said to have eraned God's free gift. So any argument that the work done in obeying God's will somehow merits God's free gift has NO BIBLICAL BASIS, it not even couched in any logic or reality.


Mark Quayle said:
Still contradicting yourself. The precondition you assess as what grace is conditioned on shows earned grace.

You have no basic understanding of salvation for you rather listen to men as Martin Luther and John Calvin than Jesus Christ. Again, you do not understand simple concepts as free gifts coming with conditions and meeting the preconditions does not, cannot earn the free gift.

Listen to what Christ has to say for a change , John 6:27
"Work not for the food which perisheth, but for the food which abideth unto eternal life, which the Son of man shall give unto you: for him the Father, even God, hath sealed."

--Jesus clearly said to WORK for the meat that endures unto eterna life meaning no work = no eternal life. Those who continue to insist no work at all is involved in becoming saved have taken sides with Luther against Jsus Christ.

--Jesus said eternal life is something He "GIVES" meaning it is a free gift. But if eternal life is a free gift Christ "GIVES" then why did Christ says to "WORK" for eternal life? Because eternal life is a CONDITIONAL free gift and one must WORK to met the prconditions God has placed upon that free gift and one work one must meet is the work of believing. Christ also made the obedient works of repentance (Lk 13:3), confession (Mt 10:32-33) and submitting to baptism (Mk 16:16) necessary to becoming saved and living faithful unto death (Rev 2:10) a necessary condition to maintain the promise of eternal life. And not the first Luther supporter can ever prove meeting the precondition of obeying God's will earns the free gift of eternal life.

Mark Quayle said:
I only said that because we have, after all, been arguing for/ against Calvinism, whether you recognized it as such or not. The reason I said it demands obedience, faithfulness etc is because it does not deny the verses you showed. Thus, Calvinism (nor I) does not teach that it is merely 'a good idea, but a necessary requirement WITHOUT WHICH the Christian IS NOT SAVED. It is not a precondition to regeneration, nor justification before God.

Calvinists, at least the ones I have dealt with, rewite the Bible and try to put savlation BEFORE one meets the necessary preconditions of obeying God. They try and have one receive the gift of eternal life BEFORE meeting the necessary preconditions in doing the works of believing repenting confessing and submitting to baptism.
I do not know your religious background but Baptists have been caught time and time again in trying to pervert the Greek word "eis" to mean "because" then pervert Acts 2:38 in saying one receives the free gift of salvation(remission of sins) BEFORE one even meets the necessary precondition of obeying in repenting and be baptized. Utter nonsense.

Local store offers free ice cream cones one day. To receive a free ice cream cone one must do the necessary work, meet the necessary precondition in going to the store and place the order and pick up the free gift. Do nothing and get no free ice cream cone. Yet even doing the necessary work in going to the store and ordering does not earn me the free ice cream cone for they still gave it to me for FREE. The necessary work i did in going and ordering the cone did not in any sense take away from the freeness of the ice cream cone.

obedient work --------------------------- in order (eis)---------------------------receive free gift
go store, order--------------------------------in order------------------------------free ice cream cone
Noah built ark--------------------------------in order-------------------------------salvation of his house
Israel gathered manna----------------------in order-------------------------------free gift nutrition
Naaman dip 7 times-------------------------in order--------------------------------free gift of healing
repent & be baptized-------------------------n order-------------------------------free gift salvation

Again, to have one receive the free gift of savlation BEFORE meeting the necessary conditions of repetnace and baptism creates utter nonsense. If we apply this nonsense of receiving the free gift BEFORE meeting the necessary conditions to the other examples, this means one gets the free ice cream cone BEFORE he even goes to the store and orders it. Noah was saved from a flood that had not yet occurred BEFORE he even built the ark. The Israelites were eating the free gift of manna BEFORE they even gathered it, Naaman was healed BEFORE he did the necessary work of dipping. Again, utter nonsense.

Mark Quayle said:
I don't know if it is a dearth of teaching concerning Election or just what --but it seems one of the hardest concept to get through to modern believers is Election --the will of God, the work of God, the wisdom and purpose of God-- concerning us.

Notice how you want to show absolute necessity ("not merely an option") of faithfulness and obedience --fine!-- but you neglect to show necessity of ("not merely an option") of the work of God on the helplessly 'dead'.

You wish to show duty --great!-- I agree, and without obedience one will not see God. I love the book of James! But, "Apart from me, you can do nothing!"

The final fact of salvation --call it 'arriving in Heaven', if you wish-- is indeed contingent on faithfulness --in Calvinist-speak, 'perseverance'-- but not CAUSED BY faithfulness.

The Bible does teach election but not the Calvinism idea of unconditional random election of certain inividuals over others thereby making God not only culpable for the lost but a repsecter of persons when it comes to salvation. Yet the Bible does teach corprorate election of a group called Christian. Before the world began God foreknew He would have a group that would poosses certain traits (holy & and with out blame, be called sons) and ANYONE who chooses to obey the gosepl can become part of the group thereby become part of the elect.

The BIble does not remotely teach any concept of TULIP. All 5 ideas are read into the Bible.

I have shown God "works" on men through His word, it is by His word that He draws men to Christ when men have been taught, have heard and leanr THEN men come to Christ John 6:44-45.

"Apart from me you can do nothing" does not teach monergistic salvation. Again such an idea makes God culpable for the lost and a respecter of persons. What it means is without God man cannot save himself by himself. Hence God sent Christ to man and man thru Christ can "save himself (Acts of the Apostles 2:40; 1 Timothy 4:16) by obeying Christ (Hebrews 5:9). So God's role in man's salvation was to send Christ to man, man's role is to obey Christ and the obedience EARNS NOTHING but simply meeting a necessary precondition to receive God's free gift. So simple to understand but Luther muddles it all up bringing false ideas and confusion to God's simple plan.
 
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Butterball1

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And you listened to none of the rebuttals given to your claim, rejecting them out of hand.

Just for starters: Your math assumes 'given me' means the same and is of the same use in every instance. Why don't you let your math tell you that Christ contradicts himself, then, saying that he loses none, yet later saying he lost Judas?
...and I refutted every rebuttal. I just spent almost an hour rebutting the errors in your last past to me.

The Bible from John 17:6 John 17:12 CLEARLY says Judas was one whom God gave to Christ and Christ kept. But Christ says "While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled."

Jesus could not have said these words if Judas was never given to Him and He never kept Judas. Jesus does not lose those who believe and continue to believe but Judas was one who did not continue to believe. And no verse says Christ will unconditionally save those who quit believing and no verse says it is impossible for one that God gave to Christ to quit believing.
 
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Butterball1

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The question was a simple yes or no. Does the Father give sheep to the Son.


My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father’s hand.
— John 10:29

The answer is yes, He does. The takeaway is that the Son loses none of the sheep given to Him by His Father. That would divide the Trinity if He did.

And the follow up is, does Christ intercede for us to the Father? Does Christ pray to the Father on our behalf? And if He does, does the Father ever say no to His Son?
It ws NOT a simple yes or no.

You said God gives sheep to Christ (even though the word 'sheep' is not found in John 6) and you never defined who qualifies as a sheep, you never defined what you considered to be a sheep. So in answering your question I defined how the Bible, how Jesus defines a sheep. Evidently you do not like how the Bible defines "sheep" and so you falsely accuse me of avoiding answering your question.
 
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Mark Quayle

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...and I refutted every rebuttal. I just spent almost an hour rebutting the errors in your last past to me.

The Bible from John 17:6 John 17:12 CLEARLY says Judas was one whom God gave to Christ and Christ kept. But Christ says "While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled."

Jesus could not have said these words if Judas was never given to Him and He never kept Judas. Jesus does not lose those who believe and continue to believe but Judas was one who did not continue to believe. And no verse says Christ will unconditionally save those who quit believing and no verse says it is impossible for one that God gave to Christ to quit believing.
By the way, thank you for taking the time to answer the other post. I honestly do admire the dedication and effort. I'm not sure I'm up to taking the time myself, but I will give it a shot. (I have lost a lot of vision loss and it is hard for me to read or to write/edit what I type.)

Maybe the simplest way I can see to show you the problem in your logic is to simply show that Judas (if indeed he never goes to Heaven, and so I assume), was never "saved" is that he wasn't saved. You may show a path "exactly like" that of the others who were kept and ultimately saved, yet Judas was not. How then can you say he was saved? Do you mean, "would have been if he had remained?" Sure, he would have been if he had remained. Nobody disputes that. But that is just the thing! He did not, because ultimately Christ sent him on his own way.

There are those who want to say Judas is the one exception to the rule, but I see no need to go there. The Spirit can do as it pleases, but Judas was not one of the Elect. The Elect WILL PERSEVERE. And, no I do not claim it is 'automatic' as though the Elect need not work. The regenerated Elect WILL work! They love Christ.
 
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Mark Quayle

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It ws NOT a simple yes or no.

You said God gives sheep to Christ (even though the word 'sheep' is not found in John 6) and you never defined who qualifies as a sheep, you never defined what you considered to be a sheep. So in answering your question I defined how the Bible, how Jesus defines a sheep. Evidently you do not like how the Bible defines "sheep" and so you falsely accuse me of avoiding answering your question.
I can only guess by your reaction that you think his was a loaded question. I'm pretty sure he was going somewhere with it --that much is true. But it was not a dangerous path, as far as 'Biblical' goes. It may have been dangerous to your ideology --most things in the Bible are rather antagonistic toward Self-Determination.
 
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The ones Christ will not lose are the ones who believe and continue to believe. No verse says CHrist UNconditionally saves, that is, Christ will not save those who quit believing.
You may not realize it, but you just called Jesus a liar.
 
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It ws NOT a simple yes or no.

You said God gives sheep to Christ (even though the word 'sheep' is not found in John 6) and you never defined who qualifies as a sheep, you never defined what you considered to be a sheep. So in answering your question I defined how the Bible, how Jesus defines a sheep. Evidently you do not like how the Bible defines "sheep" and so you falsely accuse me of avoiding answering your question.
Did you even read the post you quoted. I actually posted the verse that says that the Father gives sheep to the Son.

But that also explains why the rest of the post was ignored.
 
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Mark Quayle

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If what you mean by "works based" grace is one does works in one does works to merit grace then show the first post where I said one can work to merit grace. What I have said over and over that God's free gift of grace/salvation is CONDITIONAL, it comes with precondition of obeying God and those that meet the precondition in obeying God are the ones that recevieving the free gift. If grace were UNconditional then all men would universally be saved Titus 2:11. Since all men will not universally be saved PROVES God's free gift of grace is CONDITIONAL. And from cover to cover the Bible gives many examples of men working to meet the precondition (obedience) that GOD places upon His free gift yet NOT THE FIRST TIME is man's obedience ever said to have eraned God's free gift. So any argument that the work done in obeying God's will somehow merits God's free gift has NO BIBLICAL BASIS, it not even couched in any logic or reality.

By what you are saying here, then, Grace (in our context, the grace of salvation) is given as a result of a precondition (in your narrative: 'obedience'). Then you contradict yourself by saying that grace is a free gift, and not earned.

You also have yet to show how it is even remotely possible for the dead to do an alive thing, such as obedience.

You have no basic understanding of salvation for you rather listen to men as Martin Luther and John Calvin than Jesus Christ. Again, you do not understand simple concepts as free gifts coming with conditions and meeting the preconditions does not, cannot earn the free gift.

Listen to what Christ has to say for a change , John 6:27
"Work not for the food which perisheth, but for the food which abideth unto eternal life, which the Son of man shall give unto you: for him the Father, even God, hath sealed."

I don't remember if it is you or not, but there have been others, to whom I have tried to explain how I arrived at Reformed Theology. I do not defend it because I am entrenched in it, but because I came to it from a viewpoint resembling yours, but for one huge difference. As originally an Arminian-leaning Freewiller, I have always believed in the [Biblical' Sovereignty of God and slowly realized the many logical implications of Sovereignty, having been forced into that understanding by experiencing my utter inability, my weakness of the flesh, and by the undeniable love of Christ.

I've been a Christian, and, I believe, truly regenerated, long before I can remember, growing up a missionary kid. But I did not know Calvinism, except by caricature. It was only after I had already come to it by hard experience and many tears and LONG years of Bible study before I found out that what I had come to believe was so much like Calvinism / Reformed Theology.

Meanwhile, to your point in the verse, I repeat, we do as believers, WORK. I have never said otherwise. If we must see it as earning, even then we must work --but it is not earning, except in the sense of qualifying, as in passing a test --showing ourselves approved-- not CAUSING.


--Jesus clearly said to WORK for the meat that endures unto eterna life meaning no work = no eternal life. Those who continue to insist no work at all is involved in becoming saved have taken sides with Luther against Jsus Christ.

--Jesus said eternal life is something He "GIVES" meaning it is a free gift. But if eternal life is a free gift Christ "GIVES" then why did Christ says to "WORK" for eternal life? Because eternal life is a CONDITIONAL free gift and one must WORK to met the prconditions God has placed upon that free gift and one work one must meet is the work of believing. Christ also made the obedient works of repentance (Lk 13:3), confession (Mt 10:32-33) and submitting to baptism (Mk 16:16) necessary to becoming saved and living faithful unto death (Rev 2:10) a necessary condition to maintain the promise of eternal life. And not the first Luther support can ever prove meeting the precondition of obeying God's will eanrs the free gift of etenal life.

Here you imply again that we WORK to earn salvation, then turn around and deny it. There is, you know, a huge difference between 'condition' and 'pre-condition'. Again, "GRACE" is free --not earned. You pervert the whole Gospel with this nonsense. You sequence salvation backwards. It does not depend on anything I must do. It CAUSES what I must do.

Calvinists, at least the ones I have dealt with, rewite the Bible and try to put savlation BEFORE one meets the necessary preconditions of obeying God. They try and have one receive the gift of eternal life BEFORE meeting the necessary preconditions in doing the works of beleiving repenting confessing and submitting to baptism.
I do not know your religious background but Baptists have been caught time and time again in trying to pervert the Greek word "eis" to mean "because" then pervert Acts 2:38 in saying one receives the free gift of salvation(remission of sins) BEFORE one ven meets the necessary precondition of obeying in repenting and be baptized. Utter nonsense.

Local store offers free ice cream cones one day. To receive a free ice cream cone one must do the necessary work, meet the necessary precondition in going to the store and place the order and pick up the free gift. Do nothing and get no free ice cream cone. Yet even doing the necessary work in going to the store and ordering does not earn me the free ice cream cone for they still gave it to me for FREE. The necessary work i did in going and ordering the cone did not in any sense take away from the freeness of the ice cream cone.

obedient work --------------------------- in order (eis)---------------------------receive free gift
go store, order--------------------------------in order------------------------------free ice cream cone
Noah built ark--------------------------------in order-------------------------------salvation of his house
Israel gathered manna----------------------in order-------------------------------free gift nutrition
Naaman dip 7 times-------------------------in order--------------------------------free gift of healing
repent & be baptized-------------------------n order-------------------------------free gift salvation

Again, to have one receive the free gift of savlation BEFORE meeting the necessary conditions of repetnace and baptism creates utter nonsense. If we apply this nonsense of receiving the free gift BEFORE meeting the necessary conditions to the other examples, this means one gets the free ice cream cone BEFORE he even goes to the store and orders it. Noah was saved from a flood that had not yet occurred BEFORE he even built the ark. The Israelites were eating the free gift of manna BEFORE they even gathered it, Naaman was healed BEFORE he did the necessary work of dipping. Again, utter nonsesne.

Again, placing belief and obedience before regeneration is 'nonsense', (to use your word). The dead in sin can do NOTHING to please God. The heart of flesh does not submit to God's law, nor can it do so. Yet somehow you suppose it is so, inferring from places that do not imply it, that God does some sort of work in them that sort of changes their thinking but no not changing them.

Your examples are fleshly:
BB: "go store, order--------------------------------in order------------------------------free ice cream cone
Noah built ark--------------------------------in order-------------------------------salvation of his house
Israel gathered manna----------------------in order-------------------------------free gift nutrition
Naaman dip 7 times-------------------------in order--------------------------------free gift of healing"

MQ: All these had physical hands, or otherwise the ability to obey the physical requirement. The dead in sin do not.

BB: "repent & be baptized-------------------------n order-------------------------------free gift salvation"

MQ: I suppose you get this from such places as "Repent and be baptized for the remission of sins." Take a good look at prepositions --they are funny things. Useful many ways. You assume causation, because that fits your ideology. You insist on somehow or other causing your own salvation. That is not Grace

The Bible does teach election but not the Calvinism idea of unconditional random election

You attempt to disembowel a strawman, here. Calvinism teaches that with God, there is no such thing as random. He chose whom he chose, not from a pool of possibles, but by predestination --logically, then he CREATED FOR THAT VERY PURPOSE each person he Elected.

The Bible does teach election but not the Calvinism idea of unconditional random election[of certain inividuals over others thereby making God not only culpable for the lost but a repsecter of persons when it comes to salvation. Yet the Bible does teach corprorate election of a group called Christian. Before the world began God foreknew He would have a group that would poosses certain traits (holy & and with out blame, be called sons) and ANYONE who chooses to obey the gosepl can become part of the group thereby become part of the elect.

The BIble does not remotely teach any concept of TULIP. All 5 ideas are read into the Bible.

I have shown God "works" on men through His word, it is by His word that He draws men to Christ when men have been taught, have heard and leanr THEN men come to Christ John 6:44-45.

"Apart from me you can do nothing" does not teach monergistic salvation. Again such an idea makes God culpable for the lost and a respecter of persons. What it means is without God man cannot save himself by himself. Hence God sent Christ to man and man thru Christ can "save himself (Acts of the Apostles 2:40; 1 Timothy 4:16) by obeying Christ (Hebrew 5:9). So God's role in man's salvation was to send Christ to man, man's role is to obey Christ and the obedience EARNS NOTHING but simply meeting a necessary precondition to receive God's free gift. So simple to understand but Luther muddles it all up bringing false ideas and confusion to God's simple plan.
[/QUOTE]

Somehow you envision a supernatural being who rather than being omnipotent is only very powerful, but has granted mere Creatures the ability to make up his vacillating mind for him. Yet you fail to see how you have logically admitted to the authority of mere chance here.

I suppose you like the term, 'Corporate Election', as if it relinquishes one from admitting to God's particular, individual, Election. You will probably protest that you have not done so here, so tell me why you bring it up, as if it logically fits into your proofs.

Since to you TULIP in all five points are unbiblical, then, do you hold to the Five Points of Arminianism? TULIP, after all, is a direct answer to them. Or do you have an even more meandering style than the Arminian Five Points, which already presents a god who 'sort of' does what he does, and needs our help, or depends on causation attributable to mere chance. --Because that's what you've got.

Like me, I hope you become radically more aware of the absolute power and majesty of Christ than you do now. Because the God whose almighty power so tenderly, kindly, patiently, even sweetly, and even through weakness, and his own 'self-infliction' of our sin, shows his absolute control over all things, is OF HIMSELF, and NOT of us; we the recipients of his mercy being IN HIM, by grace. Not works.

AND, AGAIN, DO NOT TAKE THAT TO CLAIM I DON'T BELIEVE WE MUST WORK! (Nor that we have no will, as robots, nor that we do not really choose). We certainly must, but it is a result, not a cause, of grace. Of regeneration.
 
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Saint Steven

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You have no basic understanding of salvation for you rather listen to men as Martin Luther and John Calvin than Jesus Christ. Again, you do not understand simple concepts as free gifts coming with conditions and meeting the preconditions does not, cannot earn the free gift.
I agree with @Mark Quayle on this one. (quoted below)
- If there are conditions, it's not a free gift.
- If you have to work for it, it's not a free gift.
- If you have to prepare yourself for it, it's not a free gift.

Here's some free advice...
A free gift is FREE of conditions. What part of FREE don't you understand?

Mark Quayle said:
Still contradicting yourself. The precondition you assess as what grace is conditioned on shows earned grace.
 
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Saint Steven

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By what you are saying here, then, Grace (in our context, the grace of salvation) is given as a result of a precondition (in your narrative: 'obedience'). Then you contradict yourself by saying that grace is a free gift, and not earned.

You also have yet to show how it is even remotely possible for the dead to do an alive thing, such as obedience.
Well said. Kudos.
 
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Saint Steven

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The ones Christ will not lose are the ones who believe and continue to believe.
Why did the good shepherd leave the ninety-nine to go after the one lost sheep? Did the lost sheep "continue to believe"?
 
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Mark Quayle

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The ones Christ will not lose are the ones who believe and continue to believe. No verse says CHrist UNconditionally saves, that is, Christ will not save those who quit believing.
I really don't understand --perhaps it is simply your vehemence carrying you off-- why you insist on making this about us. GOD is the one keeping us, no matter how involved we are in the effort! Or do you insist that God can do nothing apart from us???

OF COURSE those God has chosen for his particular people will continue to believe. So, obviously those who fail to persevere are logically not of the Elect. But to claim that salvation is in any way not the work of God is to deny the very essence of the Gospel. Do you honestly believe God owes anybody anything???

Parse this, Exegete this, Diagram this, Look up the Greek, contextualize it out of usefulness, and reason it away into whimpering sweetness: "Apart from me you can do nothing!" I don't see Christ mincing words.

(MQ note: Dave said this to Butterball) You may not realize it, but you just called Jesus a liar.
 
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Clare73

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Clare73 said:
"I shall lose none of all that he has given me." John 6:39
The ones Christ will not lose are the ones who believe and continue to believe.
No need to re-work what Jesus states.

You're still not taking Jesus at his word, and addressing the verses themselves.

Why do you resist believing what he plainly states?
 
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BINGO!!!! You finally understand. PTL - lol
So your logic runs right along with his. Edit: My bad. I see I somehow misunderstood your (SS) universalism position for his (BB) freewill position.

Not even saying I accept the use he puts to 'UNconditional' grace, in his sentence, (because he is supposing a strawman, there) but that his logic is very bad. It claims that God's grace is not specific in application; he fails to recognize that scripturally grace is entirely based on God's own counsel, and given for his particular use. (again, not denying there is also such a thing as common grace.)

In no way, does Calvinism nor its associates claim God's Irresistible Saving Grace is universal. Some graces, certainly, but not salvation, not regeneration, so not repentance, obedience. and all graces resulting from regeneration by the Holy Spirit indwelling the believer. We even say that the Holy Spirit can be resisted, though we are told we don't believe that. But it will not ultimately be denied its rightful place to inhabit those God has created for that very purpose.
 
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So your logic runs right along with his. Edit: My bad. I see I somehow misunderstood your (SS) universalism position for his (BB) freewill position.

Not even saying I accept the use he puts to 'UNconditional' grace, in his sentence, (because he is supposing a strawman, there) but that his logic is very bad. It claims that God's grace is not specific in application; he fails to recognize that scripturally grace is entirely based on God's own counsel, and given for his particular use. (again, not denying there is also such a thing as common grace.)

In no way, does Calvinism nor its associates claim God's Irresistible Saving Grace is universal. Some graces, certainly, but not salvation, not regeneration, so not repentance, obedience. and all graces resulting from regeneration by the Holy Spirit indwelling the believer. We even say that the Holy Spirit can be resisted, though we are told we don't believe that. But it will not ultimately be denied its rightful place to inhabit those God has created for that very purpose.
Thanks.
I say, anyone who resists (or even "hates") God hasn't met him yet. I'm pretty sure he is irresistible.
 
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