A Partial List of 7th Day Assemblies

SabbathBlessings

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That verse you quoted Romans.
Is talking about the entire law and not just the ten commandments. If you change that phrase (the law) into another phrase (the ten commandments), then you have altered the scripture. That alteration comes at a very heavy cost.

Paul was addressing the Jews in Rome. That is why Paul bothers to mention establishing 'the law'. Don't bother checking the context of Romans 2 and Romans 3. That way you can continue believing what the scripture does not say.
Are you saying the law excludes the 10 commandments? Wouldn’t the entire law include the 10 commandments?
 
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BobRyan

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It is true that the work of the law for the lost is to bring about death.. for the Christians it is "written on the heart and mind" Jer 31:31-33

"do we then make void the Law of God by our faith? God forbid! in fact we establish the Law" Rom 3:31 where that Law known to Jeremiah and his readers where "the first commandment with a promise" Eph 6:1-2 is the 5th commandment


That verse you quoted Romans.

yes.

Rom 3:31 "do we then make void the Law of God by our faith? God forbid! in fact we establish the Law"

Goes with 1 Cor 7:19 "what matters is keeping the commandments of God"

And Eph 6:1-2 " Children, obey your parents in the Lord, for this is right. 2 Honor your father and mother (which is the first commandment with a promise)," -- in that still valid unit of ten.

Is talking about the entire law and not just the ten commandments.

Not the animal sacrifices as Heb 10:4-12 points out.

So while it IS true that we should not take God's name in vain and we should honor our parents - it is not true that we need to offer animal sacrifices.

James 2 - agrees
"8 If, however, you are fulfilling the royal law according to the Scripture, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself,” (Lev 19:28) you are doing well. 9 But if you show partiality, you are committing sin and are convicted by the Law as violators. 10 For whoever keeps the whole Law, yet stumbles in one point, has become guilty of all.
11 For He who said, “Do not commit adultery,” also said, “Do not murder.” Now if you do not commit adultery, but do murder, you have become a violator of the Law. 12 So speak, and so act, as those who are to be judged by the law of freedom. "

Even in the NT - "Sin IS transgression of the Law" 1 John 3:4

"These things I write that you sin not" 1 John 2:1

If you change that phrase (the law) into another phrase (the ten commandments),

I did not change any phrase into "the ten commandments"

Paul was addressing the Jews in Rome.

He wrote to both Jews and gentiles in the book of Romans.

"We" in Romans 3 -- are Christians no matter Jew or Gentile as Paul points out in Romans 2

Romans 2
26 So if the uncircumcised man keeps the requirements of the Law, will his uncircumcision not be regarded as circumcision? 27 And he who is physically uncircumcised, if he keeps the Law, will he not judge you who though having the letter of the Law and circumcision are a violator of the Law? 28 For he is not a Jew who is one outwardly, nor is circumcision that which is outward in the flesh. 29 But he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter; and his praise is not from people, but from God.

Romans 2
Gentiles who do not have the Law instinctively perform the requirements of the Law, these, though not having the Law, are a law to themselves, 15 in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience testifying and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them, 16 on the day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of mankind through Christ Jesus.
 
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BobRyan

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BobRyan said:
New Covenant: Law written on the heart Heb 8:6-12 Jer 31:31-33 ... that Law known to Jeremiah and his readers where "the first commandment with a promise" Eph 6:1-2 is the 5th commandment.

How do you know that the law mentioned in Jeremiah is referring to the ten commandments?

1. Jeremiah and his readers knew that the Law at Sinai included the TEN - we call this "exegesis"
2. Paul reminds us that the law written on the heart includes the one where the 5th commandment is "the first commandment with a promise"
3. Christ said the Ten are included - in Matthew 19
 
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klutedavid

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Are you saying the law excludes the 10 commandments? Wouldn’t the entire law include the 10 commandments?
The law is the entire law contained in the book of the law.

Galatians 3:10
For as many as are of the works of the Law are under a curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not abide by all things written in the book of the law, to perform them.”

A work of the law is doing what the law requires. For example, honoring the Sabbath is a work of the law.

The law includes the ten words and much more; health laws, civil laws, judicial laws, temple laws, food law, the list goes on and on.
 
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klutedavid

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BobRyan said:
New Covenant: Law written on the heart Heb 8:6-12 Jer 31:31-33 ... that Law known to Jeremiah and his readers where "the first commandment with a promise" Eph 6:1-2 is the 5th commandment.



1. Jeremiah and his readers knew that the Law at Sinai included the TEN - we call this "exegesis"
2. Paul reminds us that the law written on the heart includes the one where the 5th commandment is the first commandment with a promise
3. Christ said the Ten are included - in Matthew 19
You have not supported the idea that Jeremiah knew 'the law' as the ten commandments. You need to support your claim.

Your quotation from Ephesians is incomplete.

Ephesians 6:4-5
Fathers, do not provoke your children to anger, but bring them up in the discipline and instruction of the Lord. Slaves, be obedient to those who are your masters according to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in the sincerity of your heart, as to Christ.

If you add those two commandments to the previous one (Ephesians 6:1-2), then we have three commandments. But we know that we are not under the law, so we know that Paul is instructing us. Not telling us to obey the ten words.

In Matthew 19, Christ is not telling Gentiles that they must obey some commandments. Jesus is talking to the Jews about the commandments. If you fail to consider the context, then you will fail to understand the text.
 
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BobRyan

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You have not supported the idea that Jeremiah knew 'the law' as the ten commandments.

All Bible scholars admit that Jeremiah writes after Moses wrote the book of Exodus.. If you have some idea that Jeremiah and his readers were not aware of the writing of Moses feel free to post your speculation.

"Hebrew word for the first five books of the Hebrew Bible, Torah (which means "law"
 
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BobRyan

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Your quotation from Ephesians is incomplete.

Ephesians 6:4-5
Fathers, do not provoke your children to anger, but bring them up in the discipline and instruction of the Lord. .

Your quote of Eph 6:1-2 using only vs 4-5 is incomplete.

Eph 6:1-2
Children, obey your parents in the Lord, for this is right. 2 Honor your father and mother (which is the first commandment with a promise),
 
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BobRyan

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In Matthew 19, Christ is not telling Gentiles that they must obey some commandments.

It is speaking to all mankind.

Matt 28:
17 And when they saw Him, they worshiped Him; but some were doubtful. 18 And Jesus came up and spoke to them, saying, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to Me. 19 Go, therefore, and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit, 20 teaching them to follow all that I commanded you; and behold, I am with you always, to the end of the age.”

Matthew is doing that very thing by publishing Matt 19
if you want to enter life, keep the commandments.” 18 Then he *said to Him, “Which ones?

And Jesus said,
“You shall not commit murder; Ex 20
You shall not commit adultery; Ex 20
You shall not steal; Ex 20
You shall not give false testimony; Ex 20
19 Honor your father and mother; Ex 20
and You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” Lev 19:18
 
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klutedavid

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All Bible scholars admit that Jeremiah writes after Moses wrote the book of Exodus.. If you have some idea that Jeremiah and his readers were not aware of the writing of Moses feel free to post your speculation.

"Hebrew word for the first five books of the Hebrew Bible, Torah (which means "law"
No speculation on my part. Jeremiah understood "the law" as the first five books of the Hebrew Bible.

So when Jeremiah wrote the following.

Jeremiah 31:33
“I will put My law within them and on their heart I will write it"

Jeremiah was not identifying just the ten commandments, as such, but the entire law in the first five books. Bob, at last your using the proper definition of 'the law'.

Then we consider the context of course.

Jeremiah 31:31-32
“Behold, days are coming,” declares the Lord, “when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah, not like the covenant which I made with their fathers in the day I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke, although I was a husband to them,” declares the Lord.
 
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BobRyan

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BobRyan said:
New Covenant: Law written on the heart Heb 8:6-12 Jer 31:31-33 ... that Law known to Jeremiah and his readers where "the first commandment with a promise" Eph 6:1-2 is the 5th commandment.

How do you know that the law mentioned in Jeremiah is referring to the ten commandments?

1. Jeremiah and his readers knew that the Law at Sinai included the TEN - we call this "exegesis"
2. Paul reminds us that the law written on the heart includes the one where the 5th commandment is "the first commandment with a promise"
3. Christ said the Ten are included - in Matthew 19

You have not supported the idea that Jeremiah knew 'the law' as the ten commandments.

All Bible scholars admit that Jeremiah writes after Moses wrote the book of Exodus.. If you have some idea that Jeremiah and his readers were not aware of the writing of Moses feel free to post your speculation.

"Hebrew word for the first five books of the Hebrew Bible, Torah (which means "law"

No speculation on my part. Jeremiah understood "the law" as the first five books of the Hebrew Bible.

Interesting that we both said the same thing just then.


So when Jeremiah wrote the following.

Jeremiah 31:33
“I will put My law within them and on their heart I will write it"

Jeremiah was not identifying just the ten commandments,

I never said "just the Ten commandments" -- you did.
 
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klutedavid

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BobRyan said:
New Covenant: Law written on the heart Heb 8:6-12 Jer 31:31-33 ... that Law known to Jeremiah and his readers where "the first commandment with a promise" Eph 6:1-2 is the 5th commandment.



1. Jeremiah and his readers knew that the Law at Sinai included the TEN - we call this "exegesis"
2. Paul reminds us that the law written on the heart includes the one where the 5th commandment is "the first commandment with a promise"
3. Christ said the Ten are included - in Matthew 19



All Bible scholars admit that Jeremiah writes after Moses wrote the book of Exodus.. If you have some idea that Jeremiah and his readers were not aware of the writing of Moses feel free to post your speculation.

"Hebrew word for the first five books of the Hebrew Bible, Torah (which means "law"



Interesting that we both said the same thing just then.




I never said "just the Ten commandments" -- you did.
So are you saying that the entire Torah, the law, was written on our hearts?
 
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klutedavid

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BobRyan said:
New Covenant: Law written on the heart Heb 8:6-12 Jer 31:31-33 ... that Law known to Jeremiah and his readers where "the first commandment with a promise" Eph 6:1-2 is the 5th commandment.



1. Jeremiah and his readers knew that the Law at Sinai included the TEN - we call this "exegesis"
2. Paul reminds us that the law written on the heart includes the one where the 5th commandment is "the first commandment with a promise"
3. Christ said the Ten are included - in Matthew 19



All Bible scholars admit that Jeremiah writes after Moses wrote the book of Exodus.. If you have some idea that Jeremiah and his readers were not aware of the writing of Moses feel free to post your speculation.

"Hebrew word for the first five books of the Hebrew Bible, Torah (which means "law"



Interesting that we both said the same thing just then.




I never said "just the Ten commandments" -- you did.
You need to read the entire chapter (Matthew 19). Otherwise, you will misunderstand what Jesus was really saying.
 
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BobRyan

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You need to read the entire chapter (Matthew 19). .

Been there... done that. As a result - the details in Christ's exact words still stand as I quoted them and as Paul also affirms that same list in Rom 13.
 
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BobRyan

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So are you saying that the entire Torah, the law, was written on our hearts?

I am saying that even in the NT "SIN IS transgression of the LAW" and that this "INCLUDES" the TEN where "the first commandment with a promise" is the 5th commandment according to Paul. Eph 6:1-2

This is so absolutely obvious to scholars on both sides of the Sabbath debate that they admit that all TEN of the TEN are included in the moral law of God written on the heart under the New Covenant as my signature used to point out repeatedly ...

Even as at the same time many of us freely argue that Heb 10:4-12 point to laws about animal sacrifice and offerings (ceremonial laws as noted in my prior signature line) do not apply after the cross and in many cases never applied to gentiles even in the OT.

(And I am sure you agree that you and I have had this same point in discussion on this forum of the board many dozens of times.. so "nothing new here")
 
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namohcam

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Those ten commandments never grant life

Deuteronomy 6:1-2
1Now these are the commandments, the statutes, and the judgments, which the LORD your God commanded to teach you, that ye might do them in the land whither ye go to possess it: 2That thou mightest fear the LORD thy God, to keep all his statutes and his commandments, which I command thee, thou, and thy son, and thy son's son, all the days of thy life; and that thy days may be prolonged.
 
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namohcam

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Romans 13:8
Owe no one anything, except to love each other, for the one who loves another has fulfilled the law.
And how do you know that this means "fulfilled the entire law?" The context is relation to other human beings--not God.
James 2:8
If you really fulfill the royal law according to the Scripture, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself,” you are doing well.
Again, inconclusive. It's like saying, "If you really fulfill the ten commandments, you will not covet."
1 John 4:7
Beloved, let us love one another, for love is from God, and whoever loves has been born of God and knows God.
Once again, no mention of duty to God. According to evangelical Christianity, a secular humanist could "fulfill the royal law." "Do not even the heathen...?"
It is all about just one word.
Then why are there 3/4 million of them in the average English translation? Isn't all Scripture given by inspiration of God and profitable...?
 
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Bob S

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All scripture is profitable, some is not binding on man. Jesus fulfilled all of the laws of the old covenant, so they are not binding on man today. Matt 5 tells us this and if you don't believe He did then you are subject to all of those laws. "Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled." "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil."

The big question is did Jesus do what He came to do? Some do not believe He did because they continue to keep the laws of the old covenant. Paul believed He did because his writings are full of the fact that Jesus did what He came to do.

Gal 3:19 Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.

Eph 2:15 by setting aside in his flesh the law with its commands and regulations. His purpose was to create in himself one new humanity out of the two, thus making peace,

Acts 13:39 Through him everyone who believes is set free from every sin, a justification you were not able to obtain under the law of Moses.

Rom 6:14 For sin shall no longer be your master, because you are not under the law, but under grace.

Rom 6:15 What then? Shall we sin because we are not under the law but under grace? By no means!

1Cor 9:20 To the Jews I became like a Jew, to win the Jews. To those under the law I became like one under the law (though I myself am not under the law), so as to win those under the law.

Paul in the following verse is substantiating Jesus words in Jn 15:10-14
1Cor 9:21 To those not having the law I became like one not having the law (though I am not free from God’s law but am under Christ’s law), so as to win those not having the law.
 
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Studyman

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All scripture is profitable, some is not binding on man. Jesus fulfilled all of the laws of the old covenant, so they are not binding on man today.

This is your religious philosophy Bob, it was also the religious philosophy of the Pharisees. But not the philosophy of the Jesus of the bible.

Matt. 23:23 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye pay tithe of mint and anise and cummin, and have omitted the weightier matters of the law, judgment, mercy, and faith: these ought ye to have done, and not to leave the other undone.

Or of Paul;

2 Tim. 3:15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, (Law and Prophets were the only Scriptures which existed in Timothy's Childhood, this is simply a fact.) which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

Zacharias and Simeon obeyed the instructions of the God of the Bible, and as a result, were "wise unto Salvation".

Luke 1:67 And his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost, and prophesied, saying,

68 Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people,

69 And hath raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of his servant David;

16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

There is not one LAW which is Binding on man on it's own. Loving and Honoring the God of Abraham is a voluntary offering. Jesus has cleared the way for you to "Yield Yourself" to God. To "cling to Him" as opposed to the religions of the land we are born into. WE are to "bind our self to God", and the Lord's Christ gave His Life for us to have another chance at doing so.

Paul understood this perfectly, but the mainstream religions of the land of his time did not, just as they don't today.

Rom. 12:1 I beseech (BEG) you therefore, brethren, by the mercies of God, that ye present your bodies a living sacrifice, holy, acceptable unto God, which is your reasonable service.

2 And be not conformed to this world: (Or more importantly, it's religions) but be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind, that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God.

God doesn't force you, or bind you to HIS Good, Just, Perfect, Holy and Spiritual instructions. You are a servant to whom ever you "Yield yourself to obey".

It's really simple actually, just like with Eve. We either believe in the God inspired Scriptures, or the "other voice" in the garden.

2 Cor. 11:3 But I fear, lest by any means, as the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty, so your minds should be corrupted from the simplicity that is in Christ.

Matt 5 tells us this and if you don't believe He did then you are subject to all of those laws. "Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled." "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil."

Jesus said to not even "Think" HE came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. And yet there are "many" on this forum who "Think" just that. What does it mean to "Fulfill" ? In this context it is the exact opposite of destroy. Many have been convinced Fulfill and Destroy are the same thing. But what else does Jesus say about the Holy Scriptures, other than HE didn't come to destroy them?

Matt. 4:4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.

So is this Christ's Truth only until HIS Death, as some preach? Let's ask Paul.

1 Cor. 10:1 Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea;

2 And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea; 3 And did all eat the same spiritual meat; 4 And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.

5 But with many of them God was not well pleased: for they were overthrown in the wilderness.

6 Now these things were our (New Covenant Believers) examples, to the intent we should not lust after evil things, as they also lusted.

But wait Bob, aren't to preaching the Law and Prophets have already been "Fulfilled" and are no longer relevant to a Christian's life?

11 Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples: and they are written for our (New Covenant Believers) admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come.

12 Wherefore let him that thinketh he standeth take heed lest he fall.

So Bob, you think you stand, yes? So the Law and Prophets then, according to Paul, were written specifically for you.

If this is true then, of course Jesus didn't come to "destroy" the Law or Prophets, they were written specifically for us. Why would HE destroy what God had specially written for our admonition? The truth is HE wouldn't, and didn't.

Is there more evidence that God Had the Law and Prophets written for us?

1 Cor. 9:8 Say I these things as a man? or saith not the law the same also?

9 For it is written in the law of Moses, Thou shalt not muzzle the mouth of the ox that treadeth out the corn. Doth God take care for oxen?

10 Or saith he it altogether for our sakes? For our (New Covenant Believers) sakes, no doubt, this is written: that he that ploweth should plow in hope; and that he that thresheth in hope should be partaker of his hope.

So Bob, according to the Holy Scriptures, even the Law which appears to be about feeding oxen was written Specifically for "our (New Covenant Believers) Sake's" no doubt.

Are you bound to them, or are they "Binding to you"? Only if you "Yield yourself" to obey the God who created them for you. As Paul also teaches.

Romans 6:16 Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?

The big question is did Jesus do what He came to do? Some do not believe He did because they continue to keep the laws of the old covenant. Paul believed He did because his writings are full of the fact that Jesus did what He came to do.

Well we know HE didn't come to destroy, erase or make irrelevant the very instructions and examples God had written specifically for those who would "Yield themselves to God".

Jesus said why HE was Sent, if a man believes in Him.

Matt. 15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

Why were they lost?

Jer. 50:6 My people hath been lost sheep: their shepherds have caused them to go astray, they have turned them away on the mountains: they have gone from mountain to hill, they have forgotten their restingplace.

The Mainstream Preachers of that time were teaching falsehoods. They were "teaching for doctrines the Commandments of men", not the Law and Prophets. They had created their own LAWS as Prophesied in the Law and Prophets. They "Transgressed the Commandments of God by their own religious traditions". At least this is what the Jesus of the Bible teaches, if one believes in Him.

There are fraudsters, like the other "voice in the garden", who falsely preach the New Covenant was about the elimination of God's Laws. This deception is very prevalent in the religions of the land I was born into. But if a person closes their ears to these other voices, and read the Christ's own definition of HIS Own New Covenant, they can easily see this modern religious philosophy is a lie.

The only thing that changed in the New Covenant is the Levitical Priesthood. In other words, only 2 things changed.

#1. The Manner in which God's Laws are administered. No longer is it the exclusive duty of a Levite Priest to read from the Book of the Law, we all have access to the Oracles of God in our own home, in our own mind, on our own lips. We just need to believe what is written, which is called Faith. AS HE says "For I will write MY Laws on their inward parts" (Mind)

#2. The Manner in which sins are forgiven. No Longer is it the exclusive duty of the Levite Priest to perform sacrificial "Works" of the Law of atonement given by Covenant to Levi on Israel's behalf after they Sinned the great Sin, (Golden calf) "Til the Seed should Come". "for I will forgive their sins"

The teaching that the New Covenant is the destruction of instructions and examples God had specifically written for our admonition is an insidious falsehood. But a falsehood believed by "many" just the same, as prophesied.


Gal 3:19 Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.

What Law was "ADDED" because of Transgressions? What was the Law "ADDED" to? What was Transgressed?

Bob, you are preaching that the "LAW" that was ADDED 430 years after Abraham obeyed, was the 2 greatest commandments and all that hangs on them, in other words, all of God's Laws Statutes, Judgments and Commandments given to Moses to give specifically to us as Paul tells us. But this is untrue. Paul is speaking to what the Jews were still promoting. They didn't believe Jesus forgave their sins, they were still requiring the Levitical Priesthood sacrificial "works of the Law" God "ADDED" to His Commandments, Judgments and Statutes of God that Abraham and Noah, and Caleb, and Zacharias, to name a few, "Yielded themselves to obey".

God didn't "ADD" HIS Laws, Commandments, Statutes and Judgments "Because of Transgressions" till the Seed should come". He Added the "LAW of Works" for Atonement because of transgressions "Till the Seed should come". This LAW was to lead them to Christ, the Lamb of God, for atonement. And did for many as the examples of Caleb,Zacharias, and every example of Faith shows us.

I will continue in another post.
 
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Studyman

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="Bob S, post: 75845765, member: 382831"]

Eph 2:15 by setting aside in his flesh the law with its commands and regulations. His purpose was to create in himself one new humanity out of the two, thus making peace,

God's Law did NOT create a "partition" between Jews and Gentiles.

EX. 12:49 One law shall be to him that is homeborn, and unto the stranger that sojourneth among you.

The Shepherds who led God's People Astray, who taught for doctrines the Commandments of men, who transgressed God's Commandments by their own religious traditions, were the creators of the laws which placed a partition between men, based on DNA. Remember who Paul is speaking to here.

Eph. 2:1 And you hath he quickened, who were dead in trespasses and sins;

2 Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:

11 Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by (So Bob, who called these New Converts "Uncircumcised"?) that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; (Who was the "Circumcision" Bob, were these not the Pharisees, who taught for doctrines the commandments of men?)

12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:

Who said they were without Hope and without God in the World? What LAW of God relegated ANYONE who turned to God as without Hope? Can you find even ONE LAW, command or regulation that relegated Rahad, or the "mixed multitude" that left Egypt as "without God and without Hope in the World? No Bob, such a Law or regulation never existed. It only existed in the doctrine and commandments of men the Pharisees promoted which led God's People astray.

So the popular preaching in the religions of the land I was born into, teaches God's LAW caused the separation between Jew and Gentile, but this is another insidious falsehood that has snared many, as Prophesied. You can prove this for yourself if you try and find a Law of God which relegates anyone who turns to God as without Hope. No such Law of God exists. Jesus didn't expose God and His Laws on the Cross, HE exposed the religion of the men whose Law condemned Him as worthy of death.

Acts 13:39 Through him everyone who believes is set free from every sin, a justification you were not able to obtain under the law of Moses.

This is a horrible translation, but still makes the point.

Acts 13:38 Be it known unto you therefore, men and brethren, that through this man is preached unto you the forgiveness of sins:

39 And by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses.

40 Beware therefore, lest that come upon you, which is spoken of in the prophets;

It was never the blood of goats that justified men. It was always the Blood of the Lamb of God. Abraham knew this.

Gen. 22:8 And Abraham said, My son, God will provide himself a lamb for a burnt offering: so they went both of them together.

Zacharias knew this.

Luke 1:68 Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people,

69 And hath raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of his servant David;

70 As he spake by the mouth of his holy prophets, which have been since the world began:

Simeon knew this as well.

Luke 2:27 And he came by the Spirit into the temple: and when the parents brought in the child Jesus, to do for him after the custom of the law, 28 Then took he him up in his arms, and blessed God, and said, 29 Lord, now lettest thou thy servant depart in peace, according to thy word:

30 For mine eyes have seen thy salvation, 31 Which thou hast prepared before the face of all people; 32 A light to lighten the Gentiles, and the glory of thy people Israel.

They knew the Atonement Laws were only given "Till the SEED should come". They knew the Sacrificial "works of the Law" was a shadow of the Christ's sacrifice for them. As you can plainly see if you care to look.

Rom 6:14 For sin shall no longer be your master, because you are not under the law, but under grace.

Rom 6:15 What then? Shall we sin because we are not under the law but under grace? By no means!

You omitted the very reason why Paul said these things, why would you do that?

Rom. 6:16 Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin (Disobedience) unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?

17 But God be thanked, that ye were the servants of sin, but ye have obeyed from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered you. (Law and Prophets Paul said were specifically written for New Covenant Believers)

18 Being then made free from sin, (Not the definition of sin) ye became the servants of righteousness.

Whose Righteousness?

1Cor 9:20 To the Jews I became like a Jew, to win the Jews. To those under the law I became like one under the law (though I myself am not under the law), so as to win those under the law.

Under what Law? Was Paul cleansed by the Law of Atonement "ADDED" till the Seed should come? Or did HE Repent, Turn to God, and do "Works" worthy of repentance?

If he was still relying on the Levitical Priesthood "works of the Law" for atonement, then he has fallen from grace and is forever cursed, because "For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins."

Paul in the following verse is substantiating Jesus words in Jn 15:10-14
1Cor 9:21 To those not having the law I became like one not having the law (though I am not free from God’s law but am under Christ’s law), so as to win those not having the law.

Who didn't have God's Law? Gentiles right? Paul is not "Free from God's Law", but HE is forgiven by the Blood of Christ, not Sacrificial "Works of the Law of atonement".

The religion the Jews had created was so far from the teaching of the Law and Prophets that the truth of them seemed completely foreign to them. They believed that since they were Jews, they were saved. It is the same today with much of mainstream christian religions. Their doctrines are so far from what the Bible actually teaches, that the truth seems foreign to them. But they are convinced they are already saved, without the instructions and examples written for their admonition.

It was a hard pill for the religious men of Christ's Time to swallow, He said it would be the same today.

Matt. 24:4 And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you.

5 For many shall come in my name, saying, I (Jesus) am Christ; and shall deceive many.

He that has a ear, let him hear.
 
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BobRyan

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All scripture is profitable, some is not binding on man. Jesus fulfilled all of the laws of the old covenant,

True

so they are not binding on man today.

false.

Jesus did not take God's name in vain - and it is still binding on all mankind even saints - to not take God's name in vain.
 
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