- Feb 24, 2002
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My position is clear reasonable truth. A great many parts of the whole world were beyond the reach of the apostles. They could not have evangelized to all peoples of the whole world in their day.
Again I'll ask, where does scripture teach that Jesus' use of "the Whole world and all nations" is not exactly the same as Paul's?
And again I'll ask, How could Paul's original audience have known the difference?
I get that you assume it is not, but I'm still wondering where scripture teaches it is not,
and I'm wondering how Paul's original audience would have known it's not?
So much assumption going on about this topic here.
Assumption and speculation is hardly the foundation to build a sound doctrine upon.
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