20 major reasons to reject the Premillennial doctrine

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Clare73

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The sequence is, we accept Jesus' Salvation then we will make a New Covenant with Him. But what is NOT stated, anywhere in the New Testament, is when that NC will be made.
Jesus simply said: The time is coming.... Hebrews 8:8

We find that information in the OT prophesies, such as Jeremiah 32:37-40, Ezekiel 34:11-25, Isaiah 59:20-21 and others.
Until you and others here, acknowledge the truths of the OT prophets, then this issue will only be resolved when the events come to pass.
Do you participate in the Lord's Supper?
 
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keras

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Do you participate in the Lord's Supper?
Yes I do.
We partake the symbols of the Body and Blood to celebrate our Salvation and the future Promise of a new Covenant, which will be made when all the Lord's people are gathered into the holy Land. As I have shown in many OT prophesies.

That the NT prophesies about the New Covenant are in present tense, has no bearing on when it will be made.
Bible prophecy is commonly Written like that, as its fulfillment is sure.

The New Covenant cannot be made yet, as the House of Judah has not yet rejoined with the House of Israel. As described in Ezekiel 37:15-28
Take careful note of Ezekiel 37:26, what happens when the NC is made, has not happened yet.
 
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Timtofly

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What are you talking about?

So you have billions of millennial rebels who rise up against Christ and righteousness and surround the camp of the saints 1,000 years and yet they do not sin? That is ridiculous!

The fact is: sin, death, disease, Satan, the wicked, wickedness and decay corrupt this current age, but are banished from the age to come at the end with the regeneration of the whole cosmos.
Adam did not sin until after he was kicked out of the Garden. What is so hard to see that disobedience and rebellion can happen where sin is not present? Was sin rampant in God's presence when the angels rebelled? Are you going to place sin there in heaven?

You are the one forcing sin where it does not belong.

It is not me, but God's Word that allows for perfect humans to reject God. Not any different than allowing perfect angels to reject God.

Paul points out that Adam was the reason sin entered the world. God is quite capable of removing sin out of the world.
 
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sovereigngrace

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Adam did not sin until after he was kicked out of the Garden. What is so hard to see that disobedience and rebellion can happen where sin is not present? Was sin rampant in God's presence when the angels rebelled? Are you going to place sin there in heaven?

You are the one forcing sin where it does not belong.

It is not me, but God's Word that allows for perfect humans to reject God. Not any different than allowing perfect angels to reject God.

Paul points out that Adam was the reason sin entered the world. God is quite capable of removing sin out of the world.

What are you talking about? Adam sinned when he rebelled against the Word of God and partook off the fruit. The woman was deceived by Satan, and then Adam was deceived by Eve. Deception is sin. That is why they were banished from paradise. What is more, they were judged by God for their sin before they left the Garden. Sin was not welcome there.

Your teachers have clearly taught you wrong.

How can there be billions of wicked turning on Christ and causing an evil uprising in your supposed future millennium and there be no sin? That is nonsensical. That is why Premil should be swiftly rejected.
 
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sovereigngrace

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Yes I do.
We partake the symbols of the Body and Blood to celebrate our Salvation and the future Promise of a new Covenant, which will be made when all the Lord's people are gathered into the holy Land. As I have shown in many OT prophesies.

That the NT prophesies about the New Covenant are in present tense, has no bearing on when it will be made.
Bible prophecy is commonly Written like that, as its fulfillment is sure.

The New Covenant cannot be made yet, as the House of Judah has not yet rejoined with the House of Israel. As described in Ezekiel 37:15-28
Take careful note of Ezekiel 37:26, what happens when the NC is made, has not happened yet.

You are denying a pivotal doctrine of Scripture.

When Jesus instituted the Lord’s supper in Matthew 26:28, which represented His shed blood for the remission of our sins, He declared: “For this is my blood of the new testament [diathēkē], which is shed for many for the remission of sins.”

Jesus was here speaking about His death! The Greek word here “testament” is diathēkē meaning covenant or testament.

1 Corinthians 11:24-26: “And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me. After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, This cup is the new testament [diathēkē or covenant] in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me. For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come.”

"The new covenant" is here identified with "the Lord's death." There is no way around it.
 
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Timtofly

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What are you talking about? Adam sinned when he rebelled against the Word of God and partook off the fruit. The woman was deceived by Satan, and then Adam was deceived by Eve. Deception is sin. That is why they were banished from paradise. What is more, they were judged by God for their sin before they left the Garden. Sin was not welcome there.

Your teachers have clearly taught you wrong.

How can there be billions of wicked turning on Christ and causing an evil uprising in your supposed future millennium and there be no sin? That is nonsensical. That is why Premil should be swiftly rejected.
Then you fail to see Paul's point.

Can you even explain what eating of that fruit did?

Sin was not in the Garden and Adam did not sin. Adam disobeyed God, and that was not sin. Read Paul before jumping to so many conclusions.
 
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sovereigngrace

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Then you fail to see Paul's point.

Can you even explain what eating of that fruit did?

Sin was not in the Garden and Adam did not sin. Adam disobeyed God, and that was not sin. Read Paul before jumping to so many conclusions.

You cannot even address the counter-arguments because they forbid your error. You and Keras are doing more to advance the Amil cause than we are. As jgr stated: "talk about denying the undeniable."

You do not even know what sin is. Amazing!
Then you fail to see Paul's point.

Can you even explain what eating of that fruit did?

Sin was not in the Garden and Adam did not sin. Adam disobeyed God, and that was not sin. Read Paul before jumping to so many conclusions.

What is sin, in your opinion?
 
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jeffweedaman

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Can you even explain what eating of that fruit did?

God explained it better than anyone. The day you eat of it you will die.



[ quote tim ....,
Sin was not in the Garden and Adam did not sin. Adam disobeyed God, and that was not sin. ]

He died in the garden because he sinnned and died .


Rom 5
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all mankind, because all sinned


Sin brings death and separates us from the immediate presence of God....which is why we were removed from the garden in the first place.
 
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Timtofly

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You cannot even address the counter-arguments because they forbid your error. You and Keras are doing more to advance the Amil than we are. As jgr stated: "talk about denying the undeniable."

You do not even know what sin is. Amazing!


What is sin, in your opinion?
12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification.
17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:
21 That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.

Sin is not disobedience.

Impute:

ascribe (righteousness, guilt, etc.) to someone by virtue of a similar quality in another.

but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

Was the command to not eat a law?

If you claim Adam sinned because he ate against a command or a law, does not mean that he was a sinner or sinned prior to breaking the Law/command.

You deny that Adam physically died upon eating. You do not even impute the penalty, yet claim Adam was a sinner and sinned. It was not a sin until after the act. Adam did not sin nor did Eve sin when Eve ate. Eve could have continued eating her whole life, because she was not given the command. Nothing would have changed one iota. Sin is only imputed when a law exists. In Adam's case sin nor sinners did not exist, because sin did not exist until Adam ate one bite. That is when Adam disobeyed. That was when Adam sinned. That was when sin entered the world. It did not exist the second Adam ate, but did exist the instant after eating.

God did not let sin keep happening, because Adam was not allowed to keep eating over and over and constantly break the only command given. But it was too late. Adam had physically died, and was given a corruptible body of flesh and he lost the incorruptible body he had. Sin and a sin nature was then handed down through corruptible flesh. Even without laws, sin was around but not imputed. The point that God was constantly at odds with all the sons of God, not part of Adam's descendants, means that the sons of God had to experiment and test the bounds of God's endurance without any laws present. The only thing we are told is that they sought offspring with Adam’s fallen flesh and blood. Instead of leaving the rotten flesh alone, they felt they needed to add rotten flesh into their own DNA for some unknown reason.

Why is sin not disobedience in Adam's case, but is now in ours? Do you say we are still under the Law or under Grace? Because if you say under both, then why did Christ die on the Cross and why do you claim the NC eradicated sin, if there is still a Law to be under? We are not under the Law. We are still under sin but Grace abounds more than our sin. We have sin without a Law. Adam had no sin period, but one Law that would bring sin into the world and Adam's disobedience was not sin, because sin did not exist until that first Law was broken. Adam did not sin to disobey. Adam disobeyed to start sin as a reality. The Law did not make us sinners. The Law just gives us sinners something to disobey. That is why the Law imputed sin.

The Law given to Adam only imputed sin after the fact. That Law was pointless after Adam left the Garden. Adam had no way of disobeying God again. There was no law to break for Adam after that.

Sin in my opinion is the result of knowing good and evil. If we did not know good or evil we would not understand sin at all. Can we comprehend what it is like not knowing good and evil? NO! You deny that rebellion can exist without that knowledge. Yet Adam rebelled without that knowledge, and you deny even that point. Disobedience is rebellion. Death is the result of rebellion or disobedience. That is one fact that can be known. Sin on the other hand is only related to knowing good and evil. We know that God can remove both sin and the knowledge of good and evil. What that is like or how the mind process in that environment is not known.
 
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Timtofly

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Sin brings death and separates us from the immediate presence of God....which is why we were removed from the garden in the first place.
We were not removed from the Garden. Adam was.

How does sin bring death before the fact? Disobedience brings death. What law do you disobey that makes you a sinner? Or is the reason you cannot keep the law is because of sin that you have no control over? Is the law impossible to keep or easy to break? Would you not say that sin makes a law easy to break. Or does knowing evil make a law easy to break? What if you could not break a law at all no matter how hard you tried?

In God's view we are sinners without there even being one single law. And then adds death because of sin even without one single law.

Do you deny that sin and sinners are a thing even without a law? How can you agree, and then turn around and say sin is breaking a law? If there is no law and sin is still a thing, it is sin that kills not disobedience. Sin is rejecting the Atonement. You don't view the Law as being the means of Atonement. The Atonement is not a Law. Atonement is the act of Grace. The Law does not kill us. Sin kills us even if we never broke one Law. It is not totally impossible to even keep the Law of Moses, as long as we stop thinking. It is the mind that gets us in trouble, because sin is present even without a law.
 
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sovereigngrace

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12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification.
17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:
21 That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.

Sin is not disobedience.

Impute:

ascribe (righteousness, guilt, etc.) to someone by virtue of a similar quality in another.

but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

Was the command to not eat a law?

If you claim Adam sinned because he ate against a command or a law, does not mean that he was a sinner or sinned prior to breaking the Law/command.

You deny that Adam physically died upon eating. You do not even impute the penalty, yet claim Adam was a sinner and sinned. It was not a sin until after the act. Adam did not sin nor did Eve sin when Eve ate. Eve could have continued eating her whole life, because she was not given the command. Nothing would have changed one iota. Sin is only imputed when a law exists. In Adam's case sin nor sinners did not exist, because sin did not exist until Adam ate one bite. That is when Adam disobeyed. That was when Adam sinned. That was when sin entered the world. It did not exist the second Adam ate, but did exist the instant after eating.

God did not let sin keep happening, because Adam was not allowed to keep eating over and over and constantly break the only command given. But it was too late. Adam had physically died, and was given a corruptible body of flesh and he lost the incorruptible body he had. Sin and a sin nature was then handed down through corruptible flesh. Even without laws, sin was around but not imputed. The point that God was constantly at odds with all the sons of God, not part of Adam's descendants, means that the sons of God had to experiment and test the bounds of God's endurance without any laws present. The only thing we are told is that they sought offspring with Adam’s fallen flesh and blood. Instead of leaving the rotten flesh alone, they felt they needed to add rotten flesh into their own DNA for some unknown reason.

Why is sin not disobedience in Adam's case, but is now in ours? Do you say we are still under the Law or under Grace? Because if you say under both, then why did Christ die on the Cross and why do you claim the NC eradicated sin, if there is still a Law to be under? We are not under the Law. We are still under sin but Grace abounds more than our sin. We have sin without a Law. Adam had no sin period, but one Law that would bring sin into the world and Adam's disobedience was not sin, because sin did not exist until that first Law was broken. Adam did not sin to disobey. Adam disobeyed to start sin as a reality. The Law did not make us sinners. The Law just gives us sinners something to disobey. That is why the Law imputed sin.

The Law given to Adam only imputed sin after the fact. That Law was pointless after Adam left the Garden. Adam had no way of disobeying God again. There was no law to break for Adam after that.

Sin in my opinion is the result of knowing good and evil. If we did not know good or evil we would not understand sin at all. Can we comprehend what it is like not knowing good and evil? NO! You deny that rebellion can exist without that knowledge. Yet Adam rebelled without that knowledge, and you deny even that point. Disobedience is rebellion. Death is the result of rebellion or disobedience. That is one fact that can be known. Sin on the other hand is only related to knowing good and evil. We know that God can remove both sin and the knowledge of good and evil. What that is like or how the mind process in that environment is not known.

You build your whole doctrine on a misconception that Adam and Eve did not sin in the Garden.

What is sin?

1 John 3:4 tells us: Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.”

Sin is essentially the breaking of God’s commands. It is violating the Law of God. Another translation states: “Everyone who makes a practice of sinning also practices lawlessness; sin is lawlessness.” The Greek word for “lawlessness” here (anomia) means activity bereft of God’s guidance and in violation of His instruction.

When we think of sin we just think of the 10 commandments. Whilst that is part of it, it is much greater than that. Sin is doing what God tells you not to do, and refusing to do what He tells you do.

I John 3:8 confirms, “He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil."

Satan was sinning before the Law of Moses was given. Sin is basically living a life independent from God. It is doing your own thing. It is disobeying the direction of God, whether through the written Word or the spoken Word.

Adam was given one simple command to keep and he blew it: “of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.” (Genesis 2:17).

Once God speaks, ignorance is immediately dispelled. Man is without excuse. Man become an accountable being. He is expected to exercise a compliant response. He is a responsible agent.

Adam and Eve were conscious of the heart of God in regard to eating of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. They were fully aware of God's command on the same. They grasped this prohibition. They knew the awful consequences of partaking of the fruit. Yet they willingly and voluntarily partook of it. This was sin!

Genesis 3:5, continues. “And when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes (and sin is always pleasant to the eyes), and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat.”

This was the greatest sin ever committed. It was the greatest disaster for mankind. It carried the highest consequences for man.

When man fell in the Garden his relationship with God was broke. He lost that perfect communion with God and consequently surrendered his favored position before God. This allowed Satan to imprison his guilty soul and lock him up in a condemned state. With this fall, all creation fell with him. Romans 5:12 says, "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned."

Basically, Adam opened the door to sin and as a result all his offspring have been blighted with it ever since.

A W Tozer said: “The essence of sin is rebellion against divine authority.” Divine authority relates to who God is and what He requires.

In Scripture, once a law is broken, punishment results. There is no punishment without the contravening of God’s command.

Eve admitted in Genesis 3:13: “The serpent beguiled me, and I did eat.”

Satan deceived Eve in the Garden, who in turn persuaded Adam to sin.

2 Corinthians 11:3: “the serpent beguiled Eve through his subtilty.”

1 Timothy 2:14: “Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.”

Here you have it! The Greek word for "transgression" here is parabasis meaning a going over, a disregarding, a breaking and a violating. It speaks of:

(a) of the Mosaic law
(b) the breach of a definite, promulgated, ratified law.
(c) to create transgressions, i.e. that sins might take on the character of transgressions, and thereby the consciousness of sin be intensified and the desire for redemption be aroused.

If there was no command or demand then there is no "transgression." But Adam sinned when he rebelled against the Word of God and partook of the fruit. The woman was deceived by Satan, and then Adam was deceived by Eve. Deception is sin! That is why they were banished from paradise. What is more, they were judged by God for their sin before they left the Garden. That is because sin was not welcome there.

If they didn't why were they judged? Why were they threw out of the Garden? There are serious consequences for transgressing the commands of God.
 
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Clare73

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12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification.
17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:
21 That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.

Sin is not disobedience.

Impute:

ascribe (righteousness, guilt, etc.) to someone by virtue of a similar quality in another.

but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

Was the command to not eat a law?

If you claim Adam sinned because he ate against a command or a law, does not mean that he was a sinner or sinned prior to breaking the Law/command.

You deny that Adam physically died upon eating. You do not even impute the penalty, yet claim Adam was a sinner and sinned. It was not a sin until after the act. Adam did not sin nor did Eve sin when Eve ate. Eve could have continued eating her whole life, because she was not given the command. Nothing would have changed one iota. Sin is only imputed when a law exists. In Adam's case sin nor sinners did not exist, because sin did not exist until Adam ate one bite. That is when Adam disobeyed. That was when Adam sinned. That was when sin entered the world. It did not exist the second Adam ate, but did exist the instant after eating.

God did not let sin keep happening, because Adam was not allowed to keep eating over and over and constantly break the only command given. But it was too late. Adam had physically died, and was given a corruptible body of flesh and he lost the incorruptible body he had. Sin and a sin nature was then handed down through corruptible flesh. Even without laws, sin was around but not imputed. The point that God was constantly at odds with all the sons of God, not part of Adam's descendants, means that the sons of God had to experiment and test the bounds of God's endurance without any laws present. The only thing we are told is that they sought offspring with Adam’s fallen flesh and blood. Instead of leaving the rotten flesh alone, they felt they needed to add rotten flesh into their own DNA for some unknown reason.

Why is sin not disobedience in Adam's case, but is now in ours? Do you say we are still under the Law or under Grace? Because if you say under both, then why did Christ die on the Cross and why do you claim the NC eradicated sin, if there is still a Law to be under? We are not under the Law. We are still under sin but Grace abounds more than our sin. We have sin without a Law. Adam had no sin period, but one Law that would bring sin into the world and Adam's disobedience was not sin, because sin did not exist until that first Law was broken. Adam did not sin to disobey. Adam disobeyed to start sin as a reality. The Law did not make us sinners. The Law just gives us sinners something to disobey. That is why the Law imputed sin.

The Law given to Adam only imputed sin after the fact. That Law was pointless after Adam left the Garden. Adam had no way of disobeying God again. There was no law to break for Adam after that.

Sin in my opinion is the result of knowing good and evil. If we did not know good or evil we would not understand sin at all. Can we comprehend what it is like not knowing good and evil? NO! You deny that rebellion can exist without that knowledge. Yet Adam rebelled without that knowledge, and you deny even that point. Disobedience is rebellion. Death is the result of rebellion or disobedience. That is one fact that can be known. Sin on the other hand is only related to knowing good and evil. We know that God can remove both sin and the knowledge of good and evil. What that is like or how the mind process in that environment is not known.
"Thou shalt not eat of it" was a command, the law of the Garden,

just as, "Thou shalt have no other gods before me" was a command, the law of Israel.

Adam rebelled against God's law of the Garden.

He loved the creature more than the Creator.
 
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grafted branch

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He loved the creature more than the Creator.
I think this statement is correct and I see Adam and Eve symbolize Christ and the church, his bride.

It says in Genesis 2:23-24 because the woman is taken out of the man that he shall leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife. Adam at this point has the propensity to cleave to his wife Eve. In Genesis 3:6 Eve eats the forbidden fruit and gave it to her husband. In the KJV there is a semicolon after this statement before Adam eats the fruit. This suggests that there was at least a pause before Adam eats the fruit. Because Adam wasn’t deceived (1 Timothy 2:14) he contemplated his choices of either not eating the fruit and remaining with God or choosing death and eating the fruit in order to cleave to his wife. Christ also chose death to be with his bride.
 
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Clare73

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I think this statement is correct and I see Adam and Eve symbolize Christ and the church, his bride.

It says in Genesis 2:23-24 because the woman is taken out of the man that he shall leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife. Adam at this point has the propensity to cleave to his wife Eve. In Genesis 3:6 Eve eats the forbidden fruit and gave it to her husband. In the KJV there is a semicolon after this statement before Adam eats the fruit. This suggests that there was at least a pause before Adam eats the fruit.
Because Adam wasn’t deceived (1 Timothy 2:14) he contemplated his choices of either not eating the fruit and remaining with God or choosing death and eating the fruit in order to cleave to his wife. Christ also chose death to be with his bride.
Since Adam's choice was rebellion against God, and Christ's choice was obedience to God, would it be more of the contrasting parallel between the first Adam and the second Adam of 1Co 15:45; Ro 5:14-19?
 
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Clare73

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? And what has this to do with the OP?
The same as post #2597:

"Thou shalt not eat of it" was a command, the law of the Garden,

just as, "Thou shalt have no other gods before me" was a command, the law of Israel.

Adam rebelled against God's law of the Garden.

He loved the creature more than the Creator.

And post #2599:

I think this statement is correct and I see Adam and Eve symbolize Christ and the church, his bride.
 
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