The Day of the Lord: Length and Chronology of

Erasmus7

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Hi,

I have a two-fold query concerning the time and chronology element of the ‘Day of the Lord’:
  1. The first query concerns whether the Day of the Lord is a literal day or a period of time.
On one level, it appears to be a literal ‘day’. For instance, Zechariah 14:6-7: ‘On that day there shall be no light, cold, or frost. 7 And there shall be a unique day, which is known to the Lord, neither day nor night, but at evening time there shall be light.’

Furthermore, the impression gleaned from various NT sources also leans toward it being an actual day. In 1 Thessalonians Paul repeatedly refers to the longing of himself and the Thessalonians to the Day when Jesus will be revealed from heaven (1:10; 2:19; 3:13; esp. 2 Thess. 1:7, ‘He will pay back those who trouble you, and give relief to you who are troubled. This will happen when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven in blazing fire…’ cf 2 Thess 2, which speaks similarly of the Day).

Jesus also seems to imply an actual day of His revelation from heaven in Matthew 24:29-31 – at least this is the impression we get.

However, other sources indicate that the Day of the Lord is a period of time.

To return to the Zechariah 14 passage, v.2 says, ‘Half of the city shall go out into exile…’ An exile implies a prolonged period of time.

Furthermore, although Matthew 24 seems to indicate an actual day, the parallel Luke account mentions both a ‘day’ and many ‘days’. Thus in Luke 17:22 Jesus speaks of 'one of the days of the Son of Man', and seems to link it with the 'Son of Man on His Day' (singular) in v.24.

Furthermore, Revelation 6-9 seems clearly to flow consecutively. I.e., in chapter 7 the faithful are sealed so as not to be hurt by the judgments on ‘the land or the sea or the trees’, and subsequent to this, we then see these judgments on the land and the sea and the trees in chapter 8. Furthermore, the incense offering of the prayers of God’s people (8:3), seems to be those prayers of the martyrs under the fifth seal in Revelation 6.

However, the sixth seal (Rev 6.16-17) is announced as the ‘Day of the Lord’. The seventh seal (8:1) occurs just before the trumpets and seems to precede them. This means that the 7 trumpets seem to be in their entirety the actual Day of the Lord spoken of and anticipated in the sixth seal of 6:16-17.

What this means is that the Day of the Lord is a period of time, specifically that period of time of the 7 trumpets.

Furthermore, the Day of the Lord is described in Rev 6 as a day when the sun is darkened, the moon turns to blood, etc. Of course, this implies that these phenomena are not a one-day occurrence, but may be expanded through the trumpets.

However, Matthew 24 likewise describes the ‘sun darkened, moon turn to blood’, etc., as ‘after the tribulation of those days’, and as a time when Jesus will return. However, the impression gleaned is that His return is a one-day occurrence when everything will be ‘tied up’ as such (or is more perhaps implied in Matt 24:29-31?).

How, then, do the two groups of texts tie up – ie, is the Day of the Lord a single-day event or is it somehow expanded over a period of time?


2. The second, linked, query concerns the nature of the Day of the Lord itself.

In this regard, the concept of the Day of the Lord seems to be applied to separate events.

For instance, in Joel 1 (eg v.15) The Day of the Lord describes God’s judgment on Jerusalem. However, in Joel 3:1-2 the Day is described as taking place after the restoration of Israel as a day when He will fight against their foes, and on behalf of Jerusalem.

So too the Day is associated with the return from the exile, e.g., Isaiah 11:11, Thus ‘On that day’ the Lord will reclaim the surviving remnant of his people from all nations and bring them back to the Land.

I suspect we have here a case of the law of prophetic perspective: the prophet (seeing as he does on a spiritual and prophetic level) sees it as one day, but in actual terms it may be applied to both the invasion of Jerusalem, and also to the restoration of Israel after the exile, as well as to eschatological events.

Might we, then, apply the law of double reference, that the prophecy of the Day of the Lord is fulfilled on more than one occasion?

Alternatively, if the Day of the Lord is one of judgment and burning fire, perhaps the entire 70 year exile may be seen as an expression of it, in the sense of a purging experience to bring about repentance of His people. Is the Day of the Lord then 70 years?

In terms of literal day vs period of time, I also wonder if there is a sense in which the Day of the Lord may be applied in both a narrow and a wide sense, that is, the first day of the period of God’s judgment may in some narrow sense be referred to as a literal day (as Zechariah 14 above) but the term may also be applied in a broad sense to that judgment period.

I would greatly appreciate feedback, and especially recommendation of a lengthy treatment of the subject.
 

Douggg

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Hi,

I have a two-fold query concerning the time and chronology element of the ‘Day of the Lord’:
  1. The first query concerns whether the Day of the Lord is a literal day or a period of time.
On one level, it appears to be a literal ‘day’. For instance, Zechariah 14:6-7: ‘On that day there shall be no light, cold, or frost. 7 And there shall be a unique day, which is known to the Lord, neither day nor night, but at evening time there shall be light.’

Furthermore, the impression gleaned from various NT sources also leans toward it being an actual day. In 1 Thessalonians Paul repeatedly refers to the longing of himself and the Thessalonians to the Day when Jesus will be revealed from heaven (1:10; 2:19; 3:13; esp. 2 Thess. 1:7, ‘He will pay back those who trouble you, and give relief to you who are troubled. This will happen when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven in blazing fire…’ cf 2 Thess 2, which speaks similarly of the Day).

Jesus also seems to imply an actual day of His revelation from heaven in Matthew 24:29-31 – at least this is the impression we get.

However, other sources indicate that the Day of the Lord is a period of time.

To return to the Zechariah 14 passage, v.2 says, ‘Half of the city shall go out into exile…’ An exile implies a prolonged period of time.

Furthermore, although Matthew 24 seems to indicate an actual day, the parallel Luke account mentions both a ‘day’ and many ‘days’. Thus in Luke 17:22 Jesus speaks of 'one of the days of the Son of Man', and seems to link it with the 'Son of Man on His Day' (singular) in v.24.

Furthermore, Revelation 6-9 seems clearly to flow consecutively. I.e., in chapter 7 the faithful are sealed so as not to be hurt by the judgments on ‘the land or the sea or the trees’, and subsequent to this, we then see these judgments on the land and the sea and the trees in chapter 8. Furthermore, the incense offering of the prayers of God’s people (8:3), seems to be those prayers of the martyrs under the fifth seal in Revelation 6.

However, the sixth seal (Rev 6.16-17) is announced as the ‘Day of the Lord’. The seventh seal (8:1) occurs just before the trumpets and seems to precede them. This means that the 7 trumpets seem to be in their entirety the actual Day of the Lord spoken of and anticipated in the sixth seal of 6:16-17.

What this means is that the Day of the Lord is a period of time, specifically that period of time of the 7 trumpets.

Furthermore, the Day of the Lord is described in Rev 6 as a day when the sun is darkened, the moon turns to blood, etc. Of course, this implies that these phenomena are not a one-day occurrence, but may be expanded through the trumpets.

However, Matthew 24 likewise describes the ‘sun darkened, moon turn to blood’, etc., as ‘after the tribulation of those days’, and as a time when Jesus will return. However, the impression gleaned is that His return is a one-day occurrence when everything will be ‘tied up’ as such (or is more perhaps implied in Matt 24:29-31?).

How, then, do the two groups of texts tie up – ie, is the Day of the Lord a single-day event or is it somehow expanded over a period of time?


2. The second, linked, query concerns the nature of the Day of the Lord itself.

In this regard, the concept of the Day of the Lord seems to be applied to separate events.

For instance, in Joel 1 (eg v.15) The Day of the Lord describes God’s judgment on Jerusalem. However, in Joel 3:1-2 the Day is described as taking place after the restoration of Israel as a day when He will fight against their foes, and on behalf of Jerusalem.

So too the Day is associated with the return from the exile, e.g., Isaiah 11:11, Thus ‘On that day’ the Lord will reclaim the surviving remnant of his people from all nations and bring them back to the Land.

I suspect we have here a case of the law of prophetic perspective: the prophet (seeing as he does on a spiritual and prophetic level) sees it as one day, but in actual terms it may be applied to both the invasion of Jerusalem, and also to the restoration of Israel after the exile, as well as to eschatological events.

Might we, then, apply the law of double reference, that the prophecy of the Day of the Lord is fulfilled on more than one occasion?

Alternatively, if the Day of the Lord is one of judgment and burning fire, perhaps the entire 70 year exile may be seen as an expression of it, in the sense of a purging experience to bring about repentance of His people. Is the Day of the Lord then 70 years?

In terms of literal day vs period of time, I also wonder if there is a sense in which the Day of the Lord may be applied in both a narrow and a wide sense, that is, the first day of the period of God’s judgment may in some narrow sense be referred to as a literal day (as Zechariah 14 above) but the term may also be applied in a broad sense to that judgment period.

I would greatly appreciate feedback, and especially recommendation of a lengthy treatment of the subject.
The Day of the Lord begins, is triggered by the Antichrist going in to the temple sitting, claiming to have achieved God-hood.

The first part of the Day of the Lord, around 3 years 9 month long (as we can't place an exact figure on it) is when all of the bad stuff happens (the great tribulation).

Then, when Jesus returns, the 1000 years following are peaceful time on this earth of the Day of the Lord.

At the end of the 1000 years there is one last rebellion, which is quickly dwelt with by God, and then the Great White Throne judgment.

Followed by eternity, which the Day of the Lord, lasts forever.
 
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keras

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It is evident that there are two separate ‘Days of the Lord’ in which the Lord acts to punish His enemies. The Sixth Seal, the Day of the Lord’s vengeance and wrath, is the next prophesied event that we can expect, of a worldwide judgement/punishment by fire from the sun, a one day event, which will clear and cleanse His Land. Most clearly described in Isaiah 63:1-6 and Habakkuk 3:12 ‘Furiously You traverse the earth, in anger You trample down the nations.’ But the Lord is not seen: Psalms 11:4-6, Psalms 18:11

Then, several years later, at the Return of Jesus, is the Sixth and Seventh Bowl fulfilment, the great Day of the Sovereign Lord, when He disposes of the armies of the Anti Christ and commences His Millennium reign.
Revelation 19:19-21, Zechariah 14:3-5
 
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