Did Jesus drink the sour wine and gall?

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God, being long suffering, suffered in the person of His only begotten Son for the salvation of sinners, but this was not, as Anselm of Canterbury somewhat impiously suggested, in order to satisfy the wounded honor of the Father, who is not by nature wrathful.

Have you not read the Old Testament or something?
 
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ewq1938

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There was no wrath involved when animals were sacrificed for sin in the OT. There was also no wrath from the Father towards the Son. Wrath is only shown to the enemies of God. Death and bloodshed was a necessary part of the forgiveness process and thankfully Christ was the last one ever needed.





Actually no, it really was the Father's wrath against sin that Jesus endured on the cross. Jesus was punished in our stead. That's pretty basic knowledge.

Isaiah 53:4-5 NIV
Surely he took up our pain and bore our suffering, yet we considered him punished by God, stricken by him, and afflicted. But he was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace was on him, and by his wounds we are healed.
 
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There was also no wrath from the Father towards the Son. Wrath is only shown to the enemies of God.

It was shown to Christ at the time of His suffering atonement. If there is no penal substitutionary atonement, then we can expect God's wrath against our sin in the next life.
 
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The Liturgist

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I would also like to make two other points which my learned friend @ewq1938 might find interesting, if he is not already aware of them (which would not surprise me, as he is one of the most learned members of the forum on questions of theology): firstly, the penal substitutionary atonement soteriology was unknown to the early church, but first appears in the writings of Anselm of Canterbury and his contemporaries, and secondly, this doctrine, which is not of the Patristic era, and which most Christians do not adhere to, but which is rather in its fullest form limited to a subset of the evangelical and fundamentalist reformed communities, is also that which New Atheists like to charicature when they blasphemously refer to God the Father as “the ultimate child abuser.”

Now this last point is entirely false even if we accept the doctrine of penal substitutionary atonement, but since we do not have to accept that doctrine, and since the doctrine, because of the distortion of the New Atheists, becomes something of a stumbling block for non-Christians, it seems to me better to rely on a richer, more ancient, more incarnation Soteriological model which does not separate the Passion of our Lord from His incarnation.
 
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It was shown to Christ at the time of His suffering atonement. If there is no penal substitutionary atonement, then we can expect God's wrath against our sin in the next life.

That’s not true, because when we are baptized in Christ, mystically participating with Him in the Jordan, we cease to be an enemy of God subject to the wrath of God as expressed by @ewq1938 and instead put on Christ, having died and been born again in Him. Or as the Orthodox baptismal hymn goes “As many who have been baptized in Christ have put on Christ. Hallelujah!”

And when we partake of the last supper, we partake of the sacrifice Christ made, which was indeed a propitiation for our sins, but not by the Son to the Father, but rather, God Himself suffering for our sake. We must not forget that Christ our God is of one essence with the Father, being the Word made Flesh.
 
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It was shown to Christ at the time of His suffering atonement.

I don't agree. Christ's enemies showed him their wrath and since they didn't even really understand what they were doing, Christ forgave them. The Father showed no wrath against his Son simply because His wrath is only for His enemies.
 
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The liturgist just said that God is not, by nature, wrathful. That is clearly false in view of the OT.

God is wrathful against his enemies not to those he loves.
 
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God is wrathful against his enemies not to those he loves.

True. But God did turn His face from Christ on the cross. Matthew 27:46 "Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?"

Why would Jesus say this, in your view?
 
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The liturgist just said that God is not, by nature, wrathful. That is clearly false in view of the OT.

That is untrue.

What I said is that since God is love (1 John 4:8) and a consuming fire (Hebrews 12:29), that the wrath of God is the experience of God’s all consuming love by those who are filled with hate, for whom the experience of such infinite love would be an extreme torture.

As far as the events of the Old Testament are concerned, if we interpret the Old Testament in a literal-historical, Antiochene manner, as opposed to reading it as Christological, typological prophecy in the manner of the Alexandrian school*, they can be seen either as manifestations of the infinite love of God experienced in a temporal way as wrath, for example, the mercy of death being provided so that we would not continue to suffer in sin eternally, and for that matter, the merciful reduction in our lifespan, and also the merciful destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah so as to spare them, in their cold-hearted evil, from further self-inflicted suffering, and/or as examples of God acting as the custodian of infant humanity as explained in Galatians 3:23-4:7

*We should I think seek to read the Old Testament using both the Alexandrian and Antiochene exegetical methods, for it is both historical literature and typological prophecy, in every event and detail. The purely Antiochene-literalist approach has been a stumbling block for many, and at the same time, excesses of Alexandrian allegorical interpretation, such as some of the more controversial writings of Origen, or the psuedepigraphical Epistle of Barnabas, drive people away from the Alexandrian method, when of course, both were relied on by the great theologians of the Christian church, such as the Cappadocian Fathers, Sts. Athanasius and Cyril, St. Severus of Antioch, Sts. Isidore, Ambrose, Augustine and Vincent of Lerins, St. Maximus the Confessor, and St. John Damascene.
 
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You don't need to pull out the PHD on me, man. I'm just a simple bloke. On that note—
That is untrue.
Here's what I quoted from you—
  • God, being long suffering, suffered in the person of His only begotten Son for the salvation of sinners, but this was not, as Anselm of Canterbury somewhat impiously suggested, in order to satisfy the wounded honor of the Father, who is not by nature wrathful.
God is angry at the wicked every day. Psalms 7:11. 2 Thessalonians 1:8. You guys need to pull out some scripture now, like I've been doing, if you'd be so kind. Thanks. Words of the bible > doctrines of man.
 
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True. But God did turn His face from Christ on the cross. Matthew 27:46 "Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?"

Why would Jesus say this, in your view?

He was quoting David to lead people to Psalms 22 which has many Messianic prophecies. Jesus did not think his Father forsook him.


Act 2:23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:
Act 2:24 Whom God hath raised up, having loosed the pains of death: because it was not possible that he should be holden of it.
Act 2:25 For David speaketh concerning him, I foresaw the Lord always before my face, for he is on my right hand, that I should not be moved:
Act 2:26 Therefore did my heart rejoice, and my tongue was glad; moreover also my flesh shall rest in hope:
Act 2:27 Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.

The Lord never left or abandoned Christ according to this.
 
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Heb 13:5 Let your conversation be without covetousness; and be content with such things as ye have: for he hath said, I will never leave thee, nor forsake thee.


If God will never leave or forsake us, why think he forsook his own son who is God as well?
 
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If God will never leave or forsake us, why think he forsook his own son who is God as well?

At that moment, Christ experienced a brief separation from the Father. Perhaps He did not fully believe it, but due to His circumstances at that moment in time He may have truly felt what it was like to be separated from the Father. If Christ did not experience this separation, then how could He have fully experienced the cross at all?
 
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At that moment, Christ experienced a brief separation from the Father. Perhaps He did not fully believe it, but due to His circumstances at that moment in time He may have truly felt what it was like to be separated from the Father. If Christ did not experience this separation, then how could He have fully experienced the cross at all?

The cross was not something that could (or did) separate two persons of the Trinity from each other. The persons of the Trinity are always united, never can forsake each other and never could show wrath to each other.

Ask yourself who benefits from the idea that one person of the Trinity forsook another, that the Trinity isn't fully united and one person of the Trinity showed the same type of wrath normally shown to his morally evil enemies.
 
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The cross was not something that could (or did) separate two persons of the Trinity from each other. The persons of the Trinity are always united, never can forsake each other and never could show wrath to each other.

It didn't. All I'm saying is that it felt like a separation occurred, from Christ's view, as he hung there. For the first time since... ever... Jesus felt separated from the trinity. That is part and parcel of God's wrath.

and one person of the Trinity showed the same type of wrath normally shown to his morally evil enemies.

Therein you find penal sub atonement. Christ experienced the cross at all.
 
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