Dispensationalist Only WHAT IS PAUL'S MEANING IN 1 TIM 1:4 ?

garee said:

I thanks for the reply.

Yes declared righteous (imputed) no man will be found with the righteousness of one self. And the fool that says there is no God in there heart can represent like for instance a foolish Galatian or any Christians who sins denying the will of God.

All have sinned foolishly and continue to fall short of the glory of God in this life,.

There are fools who never coming to a saving knowledge called ashiest. But when are person starts calling believers fools when they do foolish things (judging )they are in danger of falling from grace. God alone can see into the hearts of all men and move them according to His righteous will.

I will offer a couple of verse you can look at that could aid in not judging a brother or sister

Matthew 5:22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.

Galatians 3 King James Version (KJV)O foolish Galatians, who hath bewitched you, that ye should not obey the truth, before whose eyes Jesus Christ hath been evidently set forth, crucified among you?
This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh? Have ye suffered so many things in vain? if it be yet in vain. He therefore that ministereth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles among you, doeth he it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?

Philipians3:9 And be found in him, not having "mine own righteousness," which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:

The righteousness of believing, hearing the gospel. . the understanding of God not seen .

Be careful on how you use words. Search the entire scriptures comparing and then make a decision .Don't be a foolish and have a need to be called back to the righteous of Christ.

Fools are those that do trust in a righteousness of there own. Fools (atheist) like Cain who had no righteousness displayed by the murdering his brother Abel . Or Esau who saw no value in the things not seen (faith) and sold the birth rite for a cup of goat soup.

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I'm not judging you, I'm pointing out an error in your reply. I posted the chapter you quoted and showed that the term "there is none righteous" was specific to a certain group of men, which included treating those who are righteous poorly.

Cain was no Atheist, nor was Esau. Cain offered a sacrifice to the same God Abel did. Esau traded away his inheritance and asked for forgiveness which was not granted.

Philipians3:9 And be found in him, not having "mine own righteousness," which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:

In the Book of the Law, there was a "LAW" ADDED to God's commandments, Statutes and Laws, BECAUSE OF TRANSGRESSIONS. This Law is called in Hebrews, "the Levitical Priesthood". In this temporary Law a man could basically "purchase" atonement/justification by bringing an animal, the best of their flock or possessions, to a Levite Priest who would then perform sacrificial "Works" in order for sin to be atoned for. Paul addresses this "Law of works" in romans 3, and Gal. 3.

He is saying above that He is cleansed, (made righteous) not by "works of the law" of an obsolete priesthood, but by Faith in God through our new High Priest.

Dan Perez said:

Hi and see what BLUE LETTER BIBLE or what BIBLE HUB says !!

I did not write what FABLES / MYTHOS means as keep from clutter my post !

FABLES is a noun in the DATIVE CASE , PLURAL , AND MUSCULINE !

ENDLESS / APERANTOS is an ADJECTIVE in the DATIVE CASE , PLURAL and FEMININE !

The INFINITIVE is where the Infinitive is clearly used to signify RESULTS !!

OIKONOMIA means OIKOS means HOUSE and NOMOS means LAW !!

All I meant to show is that many Greek words have MANY other meaning , like in Luke 16:2,3,4 and here OIKOMINA is also used , where it is translated STEWARDSHIP / OIKOMONIA but we see in Col 1:25 and 26 that the Greek DISPENSATION of the MYSTERY was Only given to PAUL , in COL 1:25 and 26 was written about Paul !!

dan p

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Well I know that but all teh meanings are near synonymous. They are nuanced differences and that is usually do to construct in the greek.

Studyman said:

I'm not judging you, I'm pointing out an error in your reply. I posted the chapter you quoted and showed that the term "there is none righteous" was specific to a certain group of men, which included treating those who are righteous poorly.

Cain was no Atheist, nor was Esau. Cain offered a sacrifice to the same God Abel did. Esau traded away his inheritance and asked for forgiveness which was not granted.

Philipians3:9 And be found in him, not having "mine own righteousness," which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:

In the Book of the Law, there was a "LAW" ADDED to God's commandments, Statutes and Laws, BECAUSE OF TRANSGRESSIONS. This Law is called in Hebrews, "the Levitical Priesthood". In this temporary Law a man could basically "purchase" atonement/justification by bringing an animal, the best of their flock or possessions, to a Levite Priest who would then perform sacrificial "Works" in order for sin to be atoned for. Paul addresses this "Law of works" in romans 3, and Gal. 3.

He is saying above that He is cleansed, (made righteous) not by "works of the law" of an obsolete priesthood, but by Faith in God through our new High Priest.

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None righteous no not one. It pertains to the flesh what the eyes see .And be found in him, not having "mine own righteousness," which is of the law.

The letter of the law is death .What we need is new born again life which is through the faith of Christ's labor of love that works in those who have no righteousness of their own , the righteousness which is of God. . a work of His faith. The faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:

The blood of animals are ceremonial shadows of the unseen work of God that works in the believer to both will and empower them to perform His good pleasurer away sin .

The law is the law as it is written . It is governed by "the Levitical Priesthood" but it is not of the priesthood .

Hebrews 10: For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.

garee said:

None righteous no not one. It pertains to the flesh what the eyes see.

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Where does David say or imply this in Psalms 14?

It seems you are omitting a distinction God is making, between the "workers of iniquity" and the "Generation of the Righteous". God makes the distinction clearly, but you don't.

We disagree about this verse because I am not omitting this distinction God makes.

And be found in him, not having "mine own righteousness," which is of the law.

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Again, you are omitting the biblical Truth regarding how men were to be cleansed of their sins in the "LAW" of Moses. Men would take a lamb from their flock, and basically "pay" for their atonement. Jesus became this Lamb, but the Pharisees didn't believe in Him, so they were still promoting justification by "works of the Law".

4 Though I might also have confidence in the flesh. If any other man thinketh that he hath whereof he might trust in the flesh, I more:

5 Circumcised the eighth day, of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, an Hebrew of the Hebrews; as touching the law, a Pharisee;

6 Concerning zeal, persecuting the church; touching the righteousness which is in the law, blameless.

Paul followed the religious doctrines and traditions of the religions of the land he was born into perfectly. He took his "sin offering" to the Levite Priest just as his fathers did.

Gal. 1:13 For ye have heard of my conversation in time past in the Jews' religion, how that beyond measure I persecuted the church of God, and wasted it:

14 And profited in the Jews' religion above many my equals in mine own nation, being more exceedingly zealous of the traditions of my fathers.

Paul was a Pharisee. So while he sought righteousness/atonement by "works of the Law", he also omitted the "weightier matters of the law" as the Pharisees did. He became "partial" in the law as the pharisees did.

Not all Jews omitted the weightier matters of the law though.

Luke 1:5 There was in the days of Herod, the king of Judaea, a certain priest named Zacharias, of the course of Abia: and his wife was of the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elisabeth. 6 And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless.

We disagree here because the Holy scriptures makes a distinction between the "generation of the righteous" (Zacharias) and the "workers of iniquity" (Paul who persecuted God's Church), but you don't acknowledge the distinction.

The letter of the law is death .What we need is new born again life which is through the faith of Christ's labor of love that works in those who have no righteousness of their own , the righteousness which is of God. . a work of His faith. The faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:

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That all sounds real religious and all, but what does it mean? You seem to imply that it means the entire Law and Prophets kills. I would ask a question of you.

Which of the following Word's of God is the "Letter that killeth"?

Ex. 20:14 "Thou shalt not commit adultery." Is this the "Letter that Kills"?

Or is this the letter that kills?

Lev. 20:10 And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death.

So if I have broken this commandment, then it's all over for me YES? NO!! It's not over for me. Because the Christ washes my unrighteousness away.

Why would JESUS do such a thing? So I could be free from SIN and death to become the "NEW MAN" who doesn't reject the Commandment.

So yes, the Letter Kills, there is no Law which can give Life. Only the Spirit of Christ can do that. And where does Paul tell us the New Man of God finds instruction in Righteousness?

2 Tim. 3:15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

And what good works are those? Let's ask Paul again.

Eph. 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselvesyou didn't take a sin offering to a Levite Priest) it is the gift of God:

9 Not of (Man's) works, lest any man should boast.

10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.

We disagree here because God, through Paul, is making a distinction between between the "Good works" God has before ordained that we should walk in, which is His instruction in Righteousness found in the Holy Scriptures, and the work's of religious men, but it seems you don't acknowledge the distinction.

The blood of animals are ceremonial shadows of the unseen work of God that works in the believer to both will and empower them to perform His good pleasurer away sin .

The law is the law as it is written . It is governed by "the Levitical Priesthood" but it is not of the priesthood .

Hebrews 10: For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.

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This is mostly true. However, you are omitting the Covenant God made with Levi as though it didn't exist. God makes distinction between God's Laws which are His instruction in Righteousness, and the Levitical Priesthood Law that was "ADDED" to it because of TRANSGRESSION of it, "Till the SEED should come". A Law Abraham didn't have as it was "ADDED" 430 years later. But Abraham did have God's Laws, Commandments, Statutes and judgments. At least according to the Holy Scriptures.

Please consider the following.

Heb. 8:9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord.

What "Covenant" did God make with them"Because" they refused to continue in HIS Covenant?

Gal. 3:19 Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added (To what?) because of transgressions, (Of what?) till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.

What Law was the Jews "bewitching" the Galatians with?

2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?

Were they made righteous by taking a sin offering to a Levite Priest according to the Levitical Priesthood that was "ADDED" because of Transgressions? Or were they made righteous by the Atoning Blood of the Lord's Christ?

We disagree here because God makes a distinction between the Covenant of Abraham HE furthered on the Abraham's Children, and the Levitical Priesthood HE "ADDED" because Israel continued not in the Covenant of Abraham.

I know these things are not taught in the religions of the land you and I were born into. But Jesus also warned about that in the Holy Scriptures.