the 'word of God' vs 'Word of God'?

It depends on the context. Also in Greek there are two words for word; logos and rhema. Logos is used in John 1:1, rhema in Ephesians 6.

Jesusthekingofking said:

I know the bible is the written words of God, but what does Word of God referring exactly? My current understanding it's Christ/Jesus, according to John 1:1, but how does saying 'God' differ from saying the 'Word of God'?

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Your question is not clear to me but the second person of the Trinity is called Word, that second person became Jesus when He took on human flesh thus becoming both man and God. Maybe this will help:
"Question: "How can Jesus and the Bible both be the Word of God?"

Answer: The phrase “word of God” appears often in the Bible and can have a slightly different meaning depending on context and the Hebrew or Greek word used. John 1:1-2 says, “In the beginning was the Word. And the Word was with God and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God.” Here, Word is a title of the Lord Jesus. The term translated “Word” is logos, which basically means “the expression of a thought.” Logos can be thought of as the total message of God to man (Acts 11:1; 1 Thessalonians 2:13). Jesus embodied that total message, and that is why He is called the “Logos,” or “Word,” of God (Colossians 1:19; 2:9).

Logos is also used many times when referring to the written message of God (John 17:17; 1 Timothy 4:5; Revelation 1:2; Colossians 1:25). Hebrews 4:12 says, “The word of God is alive and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart.” Jesus showed a link between the written Word of God and Himself, in that He is the subject of the written Word: “You study the Scriptures diligently because you think that in them you have eternal life. These are the very Scriptures that testify about me” (John 5:39).

Another Greek word used for “word” is rhema. Rhema refers to the actual spoken/written words of God (Hebrews 6:5). When Jesus was being tempted by Satan, He answered, “Man does not live by bread alone, but by every word [rhema] that proceeds from the mouth of God” (Matthew 4:4). We are told in Ephesians 6:17 to “take the helmet of salvation and the sword of the Spirit, which is the word [rhema] of God.” Jesus demonstrated we need the actual recorded words of God to overcome Satan’s attacks.

The phrase “word of God” means more than the printed words on a page. God is a communicator and has been speaking into the human realm since the beginning. He speaks through His creation (Psalm 19:1), through ancient prophets (Hosea 12:10; Hebrews 1:1), through the Holy Spirit (John 16:13; Acts 16:6), through Scripture (Hebrews 4:12), and through the Person of His Son, Jesus Christ (John 14:9). We can learn to know God better by seeking to hear Him in every way that He speaks." How can Jesus and the Bible both be the Word of God? | GotQuestions.org

Jesusthekingofking said:

I know the bible is the written words of God, but what does Word of God referring exactly? My current understanding it's Christ/Jesus, according to John 1:1, but how does saying 'God' differ from saying the 'Word of God'?

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It's not easy to separate God from His Word. The Bible is God's written Word but the Lord Jesus is the Living Word. If the written word preached does not lead us to the Living Word, then it's just head knowledge and of little spiritual value. The Bible is NOT an instruction manual. It is a treasure map to lead us to the riches that we have in Christ Jesus.

I try to capitalize the Word of God every time I write it simply to reflect the deity just as I try to capitalize any pronoun referring to any of the three of the Trinity. It is my way of worshiping them, regardless of how it violates appropriate grammar or English conventional-ism. I also do not capitalize satan.

Jesusthekingofking said:

I know the bible is the written words of God, but what does Word of God referring exactly? My current understanding it's Christ/Jesus, according to John 1:1, but how does saying 'God' differ from saying the 'Word of God'?

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I think word of God means the word of God, God’s message.

In Jesus God’s word came on earth, because the words were declared through and in Jesus.

Jesusthekingofking said:

I know the bible is the written words of God, but what does Word of God referring exactly? My current understanding it's Christ/Jesus, according to John 1:1, but how does saying 'God' differ from saying the 'Word of God'?

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"Word of God" refers specifically to the second person of the Trinity, as John 1 explains.

Christ is/was God, as we know, so the terms are not in conflict when he is the one being referred to, but when we say "Word of God," we are referring to the Son, not to the Father or the Holy Spirit.

And also, this term, whether capitalized or not, is used in Scripture less often than it is used to refer to the Bible, and in John 1:1 to which you referred, it is rendered only as "the Word," not "Word of God."

Jesusthekingofking said:

I know the bible is the written words of God, but what does Word of God referring exactly? My current understanding it's Christ/Jesus, according to John 1:1, but how does saying 'God' differ from saying the 'Word of God'?

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The Greek words "Nomos" and "Logos" can be linked to the Hebrew word "Dabar" because "Logos" is used in the place of "Dabar" in the the Septuagint because they both refer to word that is spoken or written, and the "Nomos" was part of the spoken word of God (Deuteronomy 5:31-33). "Nomos" refers to the Mosaic Law and Jesus lived in sinless obedience to the Mosaic Law, so he is the living embodiment of it, or in other words, the w/Word of God made flesh.

Logos, which is used in the opening of John, has an underlying meaning from Greek philosophy of "rationality". This is the same word that we get Logic or used in "the study of" -ology. The Jewish philosophy Philo, a contemporary of Jesus, was the first to incorporate Hellenistic philosophy with Jewish thought. John was most likely familiar with this usage and was using it in his opening.

Albion said:

"Word of God" refers specifically to the second person of the Trinity, as John 1 explains.

Christ is/was God, as we know, so the terms are not in conflict when he is the one being referred to, but when we say "Word of God," we are referring to the Son, not to the Father or the Holy Spirit.

And also, this term, whether capitalized or not, is used in Scripture less often than it is used to refer to the Bible, and in John 1:1 to which you referred, it is rendered only as "the Word," not "Word of God."

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Does that imply that the Father’s word is only enacted when the Son is the all in all of it(it being the word) ? and the Holy Spirit would only bring that all to remembrance?

Jesusthekingofking said:

I know the bible is the written words of God, but what does Word of God referring exactly? My current understanding it's Christ/Jesus, according to John 1:1, but how does saying 'God' differ from saying the 'Word of God'?

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God is infinite --- all His creation are finite.
The WORD is the way that we communicate. God communicates to us through His Son - who has as His function to reveal God to finite created beings.

John 1:

14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us; and we saw His glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.

18 No one has seen God at any time; God the only Son, who is in the arms of the Father, He has explained Him.

John 14:
7 If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also; from now on you know Him, and have seen Him.”
8 Philip *said to Him, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us.” 9 Jesus *said to him, “Have I been with you for so long a time, and yet you have not come to know Me, Philip? The one who has seen Me has seen the Father; how can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? 10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father is in Me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on My own, but the Father, as He remains in Me, does His works. 11 Believe Me that I am in the Father and the Father is in Me; otherwise believe because of the works themselves.

Soyeong said:

The Greek words "Nomos" and "Logos" can be linked to the Hebrew word "Dabar" they both refer to word that is spoken or written, and the "Nomos" was part of the spoken word of God (Deuteronomy 5:31-33). "Nomos" refers to the Mosaic Law and Jesus lived in sinless obedience to the Mosaic Law, so he is the living embodiment of it, or in other words, the w/Word of God made flesh.

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But you, stand here by me, and I will tell you all the commandments, the statutes and the ordinances, that you shall teach them, so that they may do them in the land that I am giving them to possess.” 32 You must therefore be careful to do as the Lord your God has commanded you; you shall not turn to the right or to the left. 33 You must follow exactly the path that the Lord your God has commanded you, so that you may live, and that it may go well with you, and that you may live long in the land that you are to possess.

The word dabar (Hebrew: דָּבָר‎) means "word", "talk" or "thing" in Hebrew.[1][2] Dabar occurs in various contexts in the Hebrew Bible.

The Septuagint, the oldest translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek, uses the terms rhema and logos as equivalents and uses both for dabar.[3][4]

In Christianity, the Old Testament concept of "word event" represented by dabar carries over to the New Testament where revelation can be seen as events explained by words. (an analogy)

~Cassia~ said:

Does that imply that the Father’s word is only enacted when the Son is the all in all of it(it being the word) ? and the Holy Spirit would only bring that all to remembrance?

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No, it's just a reference to the relationship of Son to Father and the nature* of the Son.

*See Post 10 where 'GreekOrthodox' explains this quickly.

GreekOrthodox said:

Logos, which is used in the opening of John, has an underlying meaning from Greek philosophy of "rationality". This is the same word that we get Logic or used in "the study of" -ology. The Jewish philosophy Philo, a contemporary of Jesus, was the first to incorporate Hellenistic philosophy with Jewish thought. John was most likely familiar with this usage and was using it in his opening.

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Others would be more familiar with the term gnostic. Philosophy was more of a scribe participation. Hellenism overlaying Greek thought is what the new testament is written in. But they are backgrounds to which the human nature in the lifetime of Jesus has no merit.

Jesusthekingofking said:

I know the bible is the written words of God, but what does Word of God referring exactly? My current understanding it's Christ/Jesus, according to John 1:1, but how does saying 'God' differ from saying the 'Word of God'?

Click to expand...

We say Jesus is the Logos or Word, and He is called God's Word or the Word of God the same reason He is called Son of God or God's Son. That is His relationship to the Father. The eternal and only-begotten Son and Word of the Father. He is God the Son, God the Word. The second Person of the Holy Trinity with the Father and the Holy Spirit.

-CryptoLutheran

Jesusthekingofking said:

I've no problem understanding Jesus is the Word of God, but when to use W and the small w? Word and word?

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It's a matter of convention, there is no hard and fast rule. It can be helpful to upper-case the 'w' when referring to Christ as the Logos, and then lower-case it elsewhere. And a lot of people do that.

In Lutheran material one will often find the 'w' upper-cased in a lot of contexts, and that too is largely by convention. For example Lutherans speak of the Means of Grace, by which we mean Word and Sacrament. "Word and Sacrament" is understood as a single thing, because we believe that the Sacraments are themselves God's word in visible expression--i.e. herein is the Word, i.e. the Gospel, God's promises which are found in and through Christ.

Even here you probably noticed I used both an upper-case and lower-case 'w' to refer, essentially, to the same thing.

I would consider it always appropriate to upper-case the 'w' when referring to the Lord, in the same way that we upper-case the 's' as in Son--stemming from a tradition in English of treating divine names as proper nouns. Thus God not god, Lord not lord, Father not father, Son not son, Word not word, etc.

But as for whether to use an upper-case 'w' when speaking of God's promises, the Gospel, His commandments, or Scripture (etc) is, I think, a matter of personal convention; and I wouldn't expect everyone to always be consistent. And meaning can be understood based on context and/or clarification.

-CryptoLutheran

Jesusthekingofking said:

I've no problem understanding Jesus is the Word of God, but when to use W and the small w? Word and word?

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If I'm referring to the Word of God, I'll still use the word Logos instead to avoid that confusion. For example, one Orthodox hymn starts in Greek. Rather than using Word, we just stick with Logos.
Τὸν συνάναρχον Λόγον Πατρὶ καὶ Πνεύµατι
Ton synanarchon Logon Patri kai Pneumati
Let us worship the Logos who is unoriginate, with the Father and the Spirit...

"word of God", generally refers to the Scriptures so I'll use that.