Understanding "the beginning" and "the end"

Spiritual Jew

Amillennialist
Site Supporter
Oct 12, 2020
7,394
2,496
MI
✟308,043.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Absolutely not. We're currently living in the thousand years, which is an undetermined length of time.
So, why do you put such a focus on the verse that talks about things soon taking place then? Clearly, there is more yet to take place.
 
Upvote 0

Freedm

Well-Known Member
Sep 27, 2020
740
172
42
Austin TX
✟40,387.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Widowed
So, why do you put such a focus on the verse that talks about things soon taking place then? Clearly, there is more yet to take place.
Because 99% of Revelation was about what took place in the first century. Only the part about the thousand years is long term.
 
Upvote 0

Timtofly

Well-Known Member
Jun 29, 2020
9,318
568
56
Mount Morris
✟125,059.00
Country
United States
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
Because 99% of Revelation was about what took place in the first century. Only the part about the thousand years is long term.
This is a post millennial preterist position.

Meaning there was no church in the last 1900 years. The church only existed in the 1st. century. We are not the church but offspring of those resurrected after the Second Coming.

The proof this is false is because we still sin and have a sin nature. The 7th Trumpet has not sounded, and sin has not been eradicated. Pre-mill do not WANT an earthly Kingdom. We just do not object to God's Sovereign plan of an earthly Kingdom. If many posters here can prove God does not want an earthly Kingdom can they prove God did not create reality for that very purpose? To them the only reason God created earth was for 6000 years of sin to reign over humanity. That is all we know about creation. We refuse to see that was not God's only Sovereign Plan of Good News. The Good News is not that creation is coming to an end. The Good News is current creation, after groaning under the consequences of sin and death, will enjoy a 1000 year period free from sin and the consequences of knowing good and evil. Romans 8:18-25

18 "I don’t think the sufferings we are going through now are even worth comparing with the glory that will be revealed to us in the future.
19 The creation waits eagerly for the sons of God to be revealed;
20 for the creation was made subject to frustration — not willingly, but because of the one who subjected it. But it was given a reliable hope
21 that it too would be set free from its bondage to decay and would enjoy the freedom accompanying the glory that God’s children will have.
22 We know that until now, the whole creation has been groaning as with the pains of childbirth;
23 and not only it, but we ourselves, who have the firstfruits of the Spirit, groan inwardly as we continue waiting eagerly to be made sons — that is, to have our whole bodies redeemed and set free.
24 It was in this hope that we were saved. But if we see what we hope for, it isn’t hope — after all, who hopes for what he already sees?
25 But if we continue hoping for something we don’t see, then we still wait eagerly for it, with perseverance."

Nothing in the 1st century after Paul, changed the condition of the church. The church and creation are still waiting for the Second Coming to become full sons of God. The 1000 years post the Second Coming will be a changed creation that Paul portrays in these verses.

Was there a change in God using a Nation of humanity known as Israel, and a new body of individuals from all Nations known as the church? YES!

That was what happened in the 1st century. The church has had more ups and downs than Israel had and more time to mess things up and get things right than Israel had. From Joshua and the destruction of Jericho, to the Cross, was roughly 1400 years. The church has had 1990 years. Now God is about to say, "TIME IS UP!!!".

The Good News of a New Birth is upon us. There is still the time of wholeness of current creation before God dissolves current reality for the NHNE. This forum would not even exist if the NHNE happened 1000 years after the 1st century. Nor could we trust God's Word that 1000 is literally 1000. God did not leave it up to humanity to decide God's timetable. Yet many around today think they know more about God's time, than even Jesus Christ did. They claim to have solved it all from God's Word, when even God's Word on earth claimed He did not know, but only God the Father knows. All we can do is follow Paul's example and persevere in hope, faith, and trust.
 
Upvote 0

Spiritual Jew

Amillennialist
Site Supporter
Oct 12, 2020
7,394
2,496
MI
✟308,043.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Because 99% of Revelation was about what took place in the first century. Only the part about the thousand years is long term.
That is simply not true. Why would a book written to Christian churches in the province of Asia deal almost entirely about things that happened in Jerusalem in the first century? What did what happened in Jerusalem have to do with those first century churches in the province of Asia?

Why wasn't the book addressed to the church in Jerusalem if it's supposedly all about what was going to happen there in 70 AD? Have you ever thought about that? No, the book of Revelation is all about Jesus Christ and His global church through the New Testament era.
 
Upvote 0

Freedm

Well-Known Member
Sep 27, 2020
740
172
42
Austin TX
✟40,387.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Widowed
That is simply not true. Why would a book written to Christian churches in the province of Asia deal almost entirely about things that happened in Jerusalem in the first century? What did what happened in Jerusalem have to do with those first century churches in the province of Asia?

Why wasn't the book addressed to the church in Jerusalem if it's supposedly all about what was going to happen there in 70 AD? Have you ever thought about that? No, the book of Revelation is all about Jesus Christ and His global church through the New Testament era.
The book was addressed to all Christians, everywhere, because the book was literally about the revelation of Jesus Christ and that revelation of Jesus Christ means the passing away of the old covenant law. This was the great mystery of Christ that would be revealed in 70 AD to which all were longingly looking. The end of the law, the end of sin, the end of death.

How can it not be addressed to the people of the first century when the very first line in the book literally says it is about the things that "must soon take place"?
 
Upvote 0

sovereigngrace

Well-Known Member
Dec 9, 2019
9,042
3,450
USA
Visit site
✟202,484.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
The book was addressed to all Christians, everywhere, because the book was literally about the revelation of Jesus Christ and that revelation of Jesus Christ means the passing away of the old covenant law. This was the great mystery of Christ that would be revealed in 70 AD to which all were longingly looking. The end of the law, the end of sin, the end of death.

How can it not be addressed to the people of the first century when the very first line in the book literally says it is about the things that "must soon take place"?

I would agree with Preterists on Daniel 9 and the fact it has been fulfilled in and through the earthly Messianic ministry of Christ. I also hold that a lot (but not all) of Matthew 24 Mark 13 and Luke 21 was fulfilled in AD70. For example, I believe the great tribulation mentioned in Matthew 24:15-22, Mark 13:14-20 and Luke 21:20-24 relates to the wrath of God being poured out on Jerusalem in 70 AD. But I strongly disagree with their unhealthy obsessive fixation Preterists have with the coming of Titus and 70 AD.

I need to ask: who is the focus of Scripture? What is the focus of Scripture? What are the pivotal points of Scripture? I put it to you that Christ is the focal point of Scripture and history. I put it to use that salvation or redemption is the central aspect of Scripture and history I thought it to you that the pivotal points of Scripture and history are the first and second comings of Christ.
 
Upvote 0

Freedm

Well-Known Member
Sep 27, 2020
740
172
42
Austin TX
✟40,387.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Widowed
Meaning there was no church in the last 1900 years. The church only existed in the 1st. century. We are not the church but offspring of those resurrected after the Second Coming.
I'm not sure what you mean by that.
The proof this is false is because we still sin and have a sin nature. The 7th Trumpet has not sounded, and sin has not been eradicated.
But sin has no power anymore.

1 Corinthians 15:56
The sting of death is sin, and the power of sin is the law.

And if sin has no power, then there is no more death and death has been swallowed up in victory.
 
Upvote 0

Freedm

Well-Known Member
Sep 27, 2020
740
172
42
Austin TX
✟40,387.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Widowed
I would agree with Preterists on Daniel 9 and the fact it has been fulfilled in and through the earthly Messianic ministry of Christ. I also hold that a lot (but not all) of Matthew 24 Mark 13 and Luke 21 was fulfilled in AD70. For example, I believe the great tribulation mentioned in Matthew 24:15-22, Mark 13:14-20 and Luke 21:20-24 relates to the wrath of God being poured out on Jerusalem in 70 AD. But I strongly disagree with their unhealthy obsessive fixation Preterists have with the coming of Titus and 70 AD.

I need to ask: who is the focus of Scripture? What is the focus of Scripture? What are the pivotal points of Scripture? I put it to you that Christ is the focal point of Scripture and history. I put it to use that salvation or redemption is the central aspect of Scripture and history I thought it to you that the pivotal points of Scripture and history are the first and second comings of Christ.
Christ is indeed the focus. I'm not sure what you mean about an "unhealthy obsessive fixation about the coming of Titus and 70 AD".
 
Upvote 0

sovereigngrace

Well-Known Member
Dec 9, 2019
9,042
3,450
USA
Visit site
✟202,484.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Christ is indeed the focus. I'm not sure what you mean about an "unhealthy obsessive fixation about the coming of Titus and 70 AD".

70 AD is the pivotal moment of history for most Preterists you debate with on these forums. That is all they want to talk about. They apply countless second coming passages to that date. That is disturbing.
 
  • Agree
Reactions: Spiritual Jew
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Freedm

Well-Known Member
Sep 27, 2020
740
172
42
Austin TX
✟40,387.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Widowed
70 AD is the pivotal moment of history for most Preterists you debate with on these forums. That is all they want to talk about. They apply countless second coming passages to that date. That is disturbing.
Well, I do believe that Jesus came in wrath in 70 AD. Not the kind of visible physical coming that we all thought he was talking about, but I do believe that kind of coming is still in our future because the angels said he would come back the same way the disciples saw him leave.
 
Upvote 0

Freedm

Well-Known Member
Sep 27, 2020
740
172
42
Austin TX
✟40,387.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Widowed
I need to ask: who is the focus of Scripture? What is the focus of Scripture?

I should add that although Christ is the focus of scripture, the work of Christ can not be separated from what happened to Jerusalem in 70 AD. So that event is of paramount importance to every Christian as that is the time when the old covenant ended and death was swallowed up in victory.
 
Upvote 0

Freedm

Well-Known Member
Sep 27, 2020
740
172
42
Austin TX
✟40,387.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Widowed
That is simply not true. Why would a book written to Christian churches in the province of Asia deal almost entirely about things that happened in Jerusalem in the first century? What did what happened in Jerusalem have to do with those first century churches in the province of Asia?

Why wasn't the book addressed to the church in Jerusalem if it's supposedly all about what was going to happen there in 70 AD? Have you ever thought about that? No, the book of Revelation is all about Jesus Christ and His global church through the New Testament era.
For me, the key point in switching my belief to preterism was being convinced that the book of Revelation was actually written prior to 70 AD. That opened up my eyes to verses in that book which I had always tried to interpret through the lens of futurism and it was very difficult to make sense of it all, but through the lens of preterism all of these verses suddenly made a lot of sense.

Do you think you could be convinced that the book was indeed written prior to 70 AD?
 
Upvote 0

sovereigngrace

Well-Known Member
Dec 9, 2019
9,042
3,450
USA
Visit site
✟202,484.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
I should add that although Christ is the focus of scripture, the work of Christ can not be separated from what happened to Jerusalem in 70 AD. So that event is of paramount importance to every Christian as that is the time when the old covenant ended and death was swallowed up in victory.

AD70 was not the end of the old covenant. That occurred 40 years earlier. When Christ said "it is finished" on the cross that was the end of the old covenant arrangement. From a heavenly perspective the renting of the veil finished the temple sacrifices forever. Whilst Matthew doesn’t identify what Christ said before He gave up the ghost John does in 19:30: “When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.”

The book of Hebrews shows the removal of the old covenant arrangement and its replacement by the new superior covenant. Hebrews 8:6 declares (before AD70): “now hath he (Christ) obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.”

Hebrews 8:7-8 explains (before AD70), “For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second. For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah.”

The old covenant was faulty or defective. It had many limitations. It had to be replaced. Those who suggest it was still active and useful between Calvary and AD70 undermine the cross and fight with clear and repeated Scripture.

Albert Barnes contends: “it did not contain the ample provision for the pardon of sin and the salvation of the soul which was desirable. It was merely ‘preparatory’ to the Gospel.”

The Preachers Homiletical states: “Not merely ‘free from defect’, but ‘incomplete’, unable fully to meet man’s case. The old system was complete enough for its limited sphere and purpose: fault was found with its limitations.”

John Wesley explained: “For if the first had been faultless - If that dispensation had answered all God's designs and man's wants, if it had not been weak and unprofitable unable to make anything perfect, no place would have been for a second.”

Scripture (before AD70) describes the old covenant sacrificial system as that which is done away (2 Corinthians 3:11) and that which is abolished (2 Corinthians 3:13). It makes clear: the old testament … vail is done away in Christ" (2 Corinthians 3:14). Hebrews 10:9 confirms: He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.”

The sad thing is: many Christians today speak on this subject as if the cross never happened. They talk as if the old covenant still exists and is still relevant today or in the future. They fail to see that it has been eternally removed and the new covenant has replaced it. This is why they get messed up when they get to this subject. They want to go back to the old imperfect arrangement or they want Israel to go back to the old imperfect arrangement. They yearn for an old-covenant-type physical kingdom that is focused on the natural, temporal and earthly.

Equally, they want to elevate Israel to a place that they no longer own in the New Testament. Many want to render circumcision (the sign of the old covenant) meritorious or advantageous when the New Testament says it avails nothing.

The fact is, on the authority of God’s Word, we are never going back to the shadow, the type and the abolished. The reason being: God was, and is, fully and eternally satisfied with the new covenant. It doesn’t need modified, added to or replaced. The cross did it all!

The old covenant was only a signpost to the new covenant – the substance, fulfilment and the reality. It simply pointed to the new covenant arrangement that was focused on the real Jerusalem (the heavenly), not Christ-rejecting carnal Jerusalem. The old has been eternally abolished.

Hebrews 10:1 (before AD70) makes it perfectly clear, “For the law having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things."

The old Jewish temple in Jerusalem, which is now destroyed, served as an impressive physical, yet, imperfect temporal type of the living temple of God – the Lord Jesus Christ and His mystical body. It was the focal-point for the whole Judaic sacrificial system for many centuries.

Paul the Apostle addresses this in Galatians 4:9-10 (before AD70), asking, “now, after that ye have known God, or rather are known of God, how turn ye again to the weak and beggarly elements, whereunto ye desire again to be in bondage? Ye observe days, and months, and times, and years.”

The New Testament writer is referring here to the old covenant ceremonial calendar. His contention is simple: why would a liberated Christian want to go back to the old elaborate abolished Jewish arrangement? This phrase “days, and months, and times, and years” refer to the many holy days, feasts and festivals that Israel had to carefully maintain until Jesus died on the cross. All of these were a heavy bondage to them. Paul despaired because some believers were looking back to the bondage of the old that was gone. This is so opposed to the freedom that comes in Christ.

The phrase “Ye observe” is one Greek word paratēreō meaning you ‘assiduously observe’ or you ‘painstakingly observe’. The word translated “weak” here (asthenes) means strengthless or impotent. The word interpreted “beggarly” in this passage (ptochos) relates to the condition of a pauper. It is derived from the original word ptoeo meaning fallen or flown away. The word “bondage,” which relates to the old Judaic system, is the word douleuo, meaning to be a slave.

As we piece these original Greek words together, we start to get a real sense of how the New Testament viewed the whole Old Testament ceremonial law. The old covenant ritualistic system has been abolished because it is expressly impotent, impoverished and slavish’. The old covenant could not remove sin. It could never eradicate a guilty conscious. It was destitute. It has fallen and flown away. It has been rendered redundant. It is obsolete!

It has no ongoing purpose in the plan of God because of its weakness. It could never secure eternal salvation because it was not an eternal covenant. It had an expiration date. The coming in of the new perfect covenant removed the old imperfect system. When Christ came, He introduced “the everlasting covenant,” thus making the old temporal system useless. The shadow simply pointed to the substance.

Why would God ever want to bring back an insolvent and ineffective religious system that has been replaced by a perfect arrangement?

Colossians 2:14 (before AD70) plainly declares, speaking of these Old Testament ordinances and what happened at Calvary: “Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross.”

The Greek word for “blotting out” here is exaleiphō meaning: ‘to wipe off, wipe away, to obliterate, erase, wipe out, blot out’

Q. When did/will the "blotting out the handwriting of ordinances" occur?
A. Christ "took it out of the way" by "nailing it to his cross.”

These ordinances embraced the old covenant civil, ceremonial and ecclesiastical law. They were finished at the cross. When Christ made that final sacrifice for sin He satisfied all God’s holy demands for sin and uncleanness and thus Christ became the final propitiation and substitution for the sinner.

Colossians 2:16-17 (before AD70) continues, keeping on the same theme: “Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days: Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.”

The Greek word translated “holyday” here is heorte meaning a festival or feast. The normally precise KJV should probably have used feast or festival here rather than holyday because out of 27 mentions of this word in the New Testament it is interpreted “feast” in all of them apart from here.

New American Standard puts it like this: “Therefore let no one act as your judge in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath day -- things which are a mere shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ.”

The Living Bible says, “So don't let anyone criticize you for what you eat or drink, or for not celebrating Jewish holidays and feasts or new moon ceremonies or Sabbaths. For these were only temporary rules that ended when Christ came. They were only shadows of the real thing-of Christ himself.”

Paul is saying here that the old covenant feasts and festivals simply served as types and shadows of things that were to come. They looked forward to the new covenant arrangement and the reality and substance in Christ. The Jews of Ezekiel’s day and Zechariah’s day would never have understood this.

Colossians 2:20-22 (before AD70) adds, summing up the new covenant freedom: “Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, whyare ye subject to ordinances, (Touch not; taste not; handle not; Which all are to perish with the using) after the commandments and doctrines of men?”

The phrase “are ye subject to ordinances” is interpreted from the lone Greek word dogmatizo, which literally means to submit to ceremonially rule. Christianity took us completely away from the bondage of the old Mosaic ceremonial law. These festivals were filled with numerous ordinances and blood sacrifices that had to be stringently observed.

Speaking of these impotent religious ordinances, Scriptures counsels: “Touch not; taste not; handle not.” This couldn’t be clearer!

Matthew Henry adds: “Christians are freed by Christ from the ritual observances of Moses's law, and delivered from that yoke of bondage which God himself had laid upon them. Subjection to ordinances, or human appointments in the worship of God, is highly blamable, and contrary to the freedom and liberty of the Gospel.”

Adam Clarke explains: “all the rites and ceremonies of the Jewish religion now perish, having accomplished the end of their institution; namely, to lead us to Christ, that we might be justified by faith.”

Romans 15:6-7 (before AD70) tells us: One man esteemeth one day above another: another esteemeth every day [alike]. Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind. He that regardeth the day, regardeth [it] unto the Lord; and he that regardeth not the day, to the Lord he doth not regard [it]. He that eateth, eateth to the Lord, for he giveth God thanks; and he that eateth not, to the Lord he eateth not, and giveth God thanks.”

The strict religious insistence on observing precise sacred days and the keeping of the old arrangement is exposed here as erroneous. Under the new covenant we are at liberty to worship God anywhere at any time, and it is totally acceptable unto God.
 
  • Winner
Reactions: Spiritual Jew
Upvote 0

Freedm

Well-Known Member
Sep 27, 2020
740
172
42
Austin TX
✟40,387.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Widowed
I agree that the old covenant has been removed, but I also believe that it overlapped with the new for 40 years, at least in a sense. Yes, Jesus "finished" the establishment of the new covenant and removed the need for the old, but as long as the temple still stood the old covenant was still being adhered to, and although God had declared the old covenant null and void, the Jews had not.

Imagine divorcing your wife and she continues to walk into your house and sleep in your bed as if nothing had changed. If you allow that to continue to happen, then you can't rightfully claim you're divorced. Only after you change the locks and she loses access to your house is the divorce final.

Also note that the author of Hebrews said in Hebrews 8:13

By calling this covenant “new,” he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and outdated will soon disappear.

That implies the old covenant had not yet disappeared at that time.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Freedm

Well-Known Member
Sep 27, 2020
740
172
42
Austin TX
✟40,387.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Widowed
I should add that although Christ is the focus of scripture, the work of Christ can not be separated from what happened to Jerusalem in 70 AD. So that event is of paramount importance to every Christian as that is the time when the old covenant ended and death was swallowed up in victory.

Let me just expand on this a little bit. The reason I say the old covenant ended in 70 AD is because I believe the thousand years began at that time also. They can not have begun at the cross because Revelation 20 makes it clear that those who refused the mark of the beast came to life and reigned with Christ, which means the thousand years must begin after the mark of the beast.

It also means that death was defeated after the mark of the beast, as it is demonstrated by the resurrection of the martyrs, and 1 Corinthians 15 links that event to the end of the law.

1 Corinthians 15:56
The sting of death is sin, and the power of sin is the law.

Law = sin = death.

If death comes through sin, and sin comes through the law, then as long as the law exists, death exists. Which means if death was destroyed, as demonstrated by the resurrection just prior to the thousand years, that must mean also that the law was destroyed at that time. The law can not have been destroyed at the cross, because that would require for the mark of the beast to have been in place prior to the cross.

I'm afraid my explanation might be a little bit confusing so let me just summarize my logic.
  1. The mark of the beast comes prior to the thousand years.
  2. The resurrection comes after the mark of the beast.
  3. The resurrection signals the start of the thousand years.
  4. The resurrection signals the end of death.
  5. The end of death signals the end of sin.
  6. The end of sin signals the end of the law.
All these things are connected. Therefore, the end of the law is after the mark of the beast.
 
Upvote 0

sovereigngrace

Well-Known Member
Dec 9, 2019
9,042
3,450
USA
Visit site
✟202,484.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
I agree that the old covenant has been removed, but I also believe that it overlapped with the new for 40 years, at least in a sense. Yes, Jesus "finished" the establishment of the new covenant and removed the need for the old, but as long as the temple still stood the old covenant was still being adhered to, and although God had declared the old covenant null and void, the Jews had not.

Imagine divorcing your wife and she continues to walk into your house and sleep in your bed as if nothing had changed. If you allow that to continue to happen, then you can't rightfully claim you're divorced. Only after you change the locks and she loses access to your house is the divorce final.

Also note that the author of Hebrews said in Hebrews 8:13

By calling this covenant “new,” he has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and outdated will soon disappear.

That implies the old covenant had not yet disappeared at that time.

Please quote me if you are speaking to me.

It was redundant through the cross-work. The outward shell was about to disappear, but the covenant was gone in God's eyes. See the Scripture above that proves that. There definitely were not two parallel covenants coexisting - that is Dispensationalism. Nowhere does it say the old covenant finished at AD70. That is a Preterist invention. One the new arrived the old was redundant.
 
  • Agree
Reactions: Spiritual Jew
Upvote 0

sovereigngrace

Well-Known Member
Dec 9, 2019
9,042
3,450
USA
Visit site
✟202,484.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Let me just expand on this a little bit. The reason I say the old covenant ended in 70 AD is because I believe the thousand years began at that time also. They can not have begun at the cross because Revelation 20 makes it clear that those who refused the mark of the beast came to life and reigned with Christ, which means the thousand years must begin after the mark of the beast.

It also means that death was defeated after the mark of the beast, as it is demonstrated by the resurrection of the martyrs, and 1 Corinthians 15 links that event to the end of the law.

1 Corinthians 15:56
The sting of death is sin, and the power of sin is the law.

Law = sin = death.

If death comes through sin, and sin comes through the law, then as long as the law exists, death exists. Which means if death was destroyed, as demonstrated by the resurrection just prior to the thousand years, that must mean also that the law was destroyed at that time. The law can not have been destroyed at the cross, because that would require for the mark of the beast to have been in place prior to the cross.

I'm afraid my explanation might be a little bit confusing so let me just summarize my logic.
  1. The mark of the beast comes prior to the thousand years.
  2. The resurrection comes after the mark of the beast.
  3. The resurrection signals the start of the thousand years.
  4. The resurrection signals the end of death.
  5. The end of death signals the end of sin.
  6. The end of sin signals the end of the law.
All these things are connected. Therefore, the end of the law is after the mark of the beast.

The thousand years began with the first resurrection. That definitely did not happen in AD70.
 
Upvote 0

Timtofly

Well-Known Member
Jun 29, 2020
9,318
568
56
Mount Morris
✟125,059.00
Country
United States
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
I'm not sure what you mean by that.

But sin has no power anymore.

1 Corinthians 15:56
The sting of death is sin, and the power of sin is the law.

And if sin has no power, then there is no more death and death has been swallowed up in victory.
You do not live by any laws?

If the Second Coming happened in the first century, then that was also the end of the church. There is nothing going on Scripture wise right now. The only thing between the Second Coming and the next reality, is Christ ruling on earth with an iron rod. Since that is not happening, then nothing is happening.

The church is Christ on earth between the Cross and the Second Coming which is still future.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Spiritual Jew

Amillennialist
Site Supporter
Oct 12, 2020
7,394
2,496
MI
✟308,043.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
The book was addressed to all Christians, everywhere, because the book was literally about the revelation of Jesus Christ and that revelation of Jesus Christ means the passing away of the old covenant law. This was the great mystery of Christ that would be revealed in 70 AD to which all were longingly looking. The end of the law, the end of sin, the end of death.

How can it not be addressed to the people of the first century when the very first line in the book literally says it is about the things that "must soon take place"?
Did I say it wasn't addressed to people living in the first century? No, I did not. I said it was addressed to the people in the first century churches in the province of Asia. And, I pointed out that if everything centers around what happened in Jerusalem around 70 AD then why wouldn't the book have been addressed to the church in Jerusalem instead of the seven churches in the province of Asia? I don't think you have an answer for that.

But, that it was addressed to first century churches doesn't mean the entire book is only about them living in the first century. And, it surely isn't only about things that would literally soon take place or else the thousand years would already be over, the resurrection of all the dead would have already taken place, the judgment would have already taken place and the new heavens and new earth would already be ushered in. So, you're simply going way too far with this "soon take place" thing.

Also, your view is entirely dependent on the book having been written before 70 AD. I think most evidence points to it being written after that.
 
Upvote 0