hedrick

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One liberal Catholic answer in the negative came in the form of the "Fundamental Option" which attempts to focus more on the trajectory of one's life rather than individual choices made (see Veritatis Splendor #65-70).
I'd like to note that I'm making no critical comment about current Catholic practice in the US. My impression is that the US Catholic Church, except some traditionalists, is very close to being a mainline Protestant denomination. The concept of mortal sin is surrounding by lots of caveats. It's quite possible that in practice Catholic pastors are closer to my ideas than many Evangelicals.
 
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ViaCrucis

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I tend towards the traditional Protestant concept of justification by /pistis/. Note that /pistis/ can just as well be translated faithfulness as faith. I think it represents what one might call an “orientation,” which is the same as Jesus’ talk about being a follower. Until the last couple of decades, Protestants used to argue that good and bad works were a symptom of faith or lack thereof, and that you are better focusing on the cause than the symptoms.

What we do is certainly important. But I think both Paul and Jesus were looking for a specific kind of life. The problem with mortal sins is that it focuses us on specific acts, rather than motivations and patterns. A particularly egregious act may well indicate that one isn’t a follower of Jesus. But when used in Catholic practice of confession, the people involved almost certainly are followers of Jesus. For them the focus shouldn’t be on specific sins as casting doubt on their salvation. Rather, the focus should be on what is happening in their lives as a whole. Sin becomes a symptom, except of course sins that are causing significant problems for those around them need attention for that reason.

I think the traditional Christian focus on counting sins is misplaced. Jesus speaks of sin almost entirely when he talks about forgiveness. He warns people about judgement, but doesn’t use the term sin in that context. His examples seem to be people who either reject the Gospel or live lives opposed in general to God. Paul uses the term sin more, but for him sin is a force that was defeated by Christ, or the term indicates a generic phenomenon. The famous 1 Cor 6:9 is not setting up a system of judging people for specific sins, but rather is describing (and/or calling for) a wholesale change in life.

There are certainly things that have more serious consequences for others. That might well affect how pastors counsel people.

But the term "mortal sin" has a more specific meaning. Both in Scripture and in Catholic terms, it is a sin that cuts us off from God. I don't think one can classify individuals sins that way, so no, I don't think in an objective sense we can classify some sins as mortal. Except the sin against the Holy Spirit, which is notoriously hard to define, and certainly isn't the sort of thing we're typically talking about with mortal vs venial sins.

On the whole, what you've described here sounds pretty consistent with what I at least have generally felt is basically Lutheran.

The Lutheran approach isn't about the specificity of sin, that is, indeed Luther himself and the Confessions speak rather negatively on the concept of the enumeration of sins (in particular in the context of confession); rather about the innate problem of sin, and the tension between the old man and the new.

I can't really see anything that you've written here that I would really take issue with as a Lutheran. In fact, when looking at the Book of Concord earlier in regard to this conversation, I came across this in the Apology of the Augsburg Confession,

"The adversaries feign that faith is only a knowledge of the history, and therefore teach that it can coexist with mortal sin. Hence they say nothing concerning faith, by which Paul so frequently says that men are justified, because those who are accounted righteous before God do not live in mortal sin. But that faith which justifies is not merely a knowledge of history, [not merely this, that I know the stories of Christ’s birth, suffering, etc. (that even the devils know,)] but it is to assent to the promise of God, in which, for Christ’s sake, the remission of sins and justification are freely offered. [It is the certainty or the certain trust in the heart, when, with my whole heart, I regard the promises of God as certain and true, through which there are offered me, without my merit, the forgiveness of sins, grace, and all salvation, through Christ the Mediator.] And that no one may suppose that it is mere knowledge, we will add further: it is to wish and to receive the offered promise of the remission of sins and of justification. [Faith is that my whole heart takes to itself this treasure. It is not my doing, not my presenting or giving, not my work or preparation, but that a heart comforts itself, and is perfectly confident with respect to this, namely, that God makes a present and gift to us, and not we to Him, that He sheds upon us every treasure of grace in Christ.]

And the difference between this faith and the righteousness of the Law can be easily discerned. Faith is the latreiva [divine service], which receives the benefits offered by God; the righteousness of the Law is the latreiva [divine service] which offers to God our merits. By faith God wishes to be worshiped in this way, that we receive from Him those things which He promises and offers.
" - Apology of the Augsburg Confession, Article IV, 48-49

Justifying faith not being a knowledge or acknowledgement, a "I believe these things happened", but rather the transformed orientation in relation to God by trust, the passive reception of God's gifts. A Christ-facing orientation. Like God unbending a broken and bent rod of iron, a turning of the wayward face toward Himself.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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zippy2006

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Thanks for your response.

For most people it does not matter because no matter how you choose to subjectively label it - the solution is always the same -- go to the "one mediator between God and man" 1 Tim 2:5 and confess - and find peace of mind, pardon and restored fellowship. And He won't tell you how He "labeled it" either - just that it is sin and that it is now forgiven.

I wonder if it matters. To take your examples of coveting as opposed to poisoning a number of people, isn't it likely that the sin of poisoning will elicit a more firm, prompt, and sincere confession than the sin of coveting? Assuming that in each case the person is able to see the wickedness of their action, they would be more horrified that they poisoned a number of people than that they coveted (because poisoning is a more horrific act). This means that the repentance that follows poisoning would generally be more "potent" than the repentance that follows coveting. I take it that this difference is right and proper, and that it would hold "for most people."

Just so for mortal and venial sin. The doctrine is a concrete instantiation of our intuitive knowledge that poisoning is worse than coveting, and that poisoning ought to elicit a more thoroughgoing repentance than coveting.
 
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zippy2006

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Yes, something like that...

So I'm going to go ahead and read these two posts of yours twice a day for the next nine days while praying a novena to St. Thomas. On the tenth day I will write a response. :confused: ^_^

Joking aside, I'll need a little extra time to think over posts 52 & 53.
 
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BobRyan

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Thanks for your response.
I wonder if it matters. To take your examples of coveting as opposed to poisoning a number of people, isn't it likely that the sin of poisoning will elicit a more firm, prompt, and sincere confession than the sin of coveting?

A complete confession and a complete turning from sin is required in both cases is it not? Can you "half confess" of coveting but "fully confess" of something else - and call it all "The same"?

Assuming that in each case the person is able to see the wickedness of their action, they would be more horrified that they poisoned a number of people than that they coveted (because poisoning is a more horrific act).

No doubt. But confession is simply admitting that you did wrong. Repentance is turning from it.

In Romans 8:4-10 God says that the wicked "do not submit to the Law of God neither indeed CAN they". The lost person does not choose obedience - but rather some form of rebellion.

But people that are born-again according to Romans 8:4-12 choose to walk in obedience and when they sin the confess and turn from sin.

As you point out - everyone (even atheists) would feel much worse about themselves having given into some act that caused a lot of people to die - vs they gave into an act of coveting. That in itself is not a measure of even being a Christian at all -- at least to a certain point.

Just so for mortal and venial sin. The doctrine is a concrete instantiation of our intuitive knowledge that poisoning is worse than coveting,

As I said I think that we can all agree on that "degrees of sin" idea - and even atheists would appreciate that distinction.

and that poisoning ought to elicit a more thoroughgoing repentance than coveting.

That is the part I don't understand.

It is like saying that the person that steals candy from a store should be less determined not to do it again than someone who robs a bank.

The determination not to do it again is not the difference.
 
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zippy2006

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A complete confession and a complete turning from sin is required in both cases is it not? Can you "half confess" of coveting but "fully confess" of something else - and call it all "The same"?

The principle is that the more wicked some act is, the more thoroughly you ought to renounce it. If something is only mildly bad you don't have to go hog-wild with repentance. :D

As you point out - everyone (even atheists) would feel much worse about themselves having given into some act that caused a lot of people to die - vs they gave into an act of coveting. That in itself is not a measure of even being a Christian at all -- at least to a certain point.

As I said I think that we can all agree on that "degrees of sin" idea - and even atheists would appreciate that distinction.

Okay, sure.
 
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zippy2006

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I tend towards the traditional Protestant concept of justification by /pistis/. Note that /pistis/ can just as well be translated faithfulness as faith. I think it represents what one might call an “orientation,” which is the same as Jesus’ talk about being a follower. Until the last couple of decades, Protestants used to argue that good and bad works were a symptom of faith or lack thereof, and that you are better focusing on the cause than the symptoms.

What we do is certainly important. But I think both Paul and Jesus were looking for a specific kind of life. The problem with mortal sins is that it focuses us on specific acts, rather than motivations and patterns. A particularly egregious act may well indicate that one isn’t a follower of Jesus. But when used in Catholic practice of confession, the people involved almost certainly are followers of Jesus. For them the focus shouldn’t be on specific sins as casting doubt on their salvation. Rather, the focus should be on what is happening in their lives as a whole. Sin becomes a symptom, except of course sins that are causing significant problems for those around them need attention for that reason.

I think the traditional Christian focus on counting sins is misplaced. Jesus speaks of sin almost entirely when he talks about forgiveness. He warns people about judgement, but doesn’t use the term sin in that context. His examples seem to be people who either reject the Gospel or live lives opposed in general to God. Paul uses the term sin more, but for him sin is a force that was defeated by Christ, or the term indicates a generic phenomenon. The famous 1 Cor 6:9 is not setting up a system of judging people for specific sins, but rather is describing (and/or calling for) a wholesale change in life.

Okay thanks. I think this is a good objection, particularly when talking about traditional Catholic practice. I suppose a vague form of mortal sin could still be retained insofar as "mortal sins" could act as symptoms of especially problematic realities in the person's behavior, but that is a bit different from the standard understanding.

There are some Orthodox writers who get at this from a different angle by saying that true forgiveness and absolution involves a healing of the underlying concupiscence or the underlying problem. Sometimes the Catholic pair of sin & absolution becomes merely forensic.

But the term "mortal sin" has a more specific meaning. Both in Scripture and in Catholic terms, it is a sin that cuts us off from God. I don't think one can classify individuals sins that way, so no, I don't think in an objective sense we can classify some sins as mortal. Except the sin against the Holy Spirit, which is notoriously hard to define, and certainly isn't the sort of thing we're typically talking about with mortal vs venial sins.

One interesting point is that mortal sin apparently becomes more possible when one grows "spiritually." According to Catholicism one common form of venial sin is habitual sin which is not consciously attended to. Yet it seems to me that as one begins to grow in the spiritual life their faculties become more unified, their choices more conscious, and their ability to choose freely more potent. The "orientation" approach seems to assume that any given act is not sufficiently central to a person's being, and that acts and orientation can often and easily be at variance. I think this is true for most people of our own time, and probably most people of the past, but for some people that relation of act to being begins to change. On this account the strange consequence is that the saint is more capable of mortal sin than the common man. That is, they are more capable of infusing the entirety of their being in a single act, not more capable of doing evil. I think of St. Thomas More in Robert Bolt's A Man for All Seasons, when he tries to explain why taking the oath would be a mortal sin for him even if it probably isn't for most men:

"When a man takes an oath, Meg, he's holding his own self in his own hands. Like water (he cups his hands) and if he opens his fingers then, he needn't hope to find himself again. Some men aren't capable of this, but I'd be loathe to think your father one of them."
I'd like to note that I'm making no critical comment about current Catholic practice in the US. My impression is that the US Catholic Church, except some traditionalists, is very close to being a mainline Protestant denomination. The concept of mortal sin is surrounding by lots of caveats. It's quite possible that in practice Catholic pastors are closer to my ideas than many Evangelicals.

Sure. I think the Catholics are closer than many Evangelicals, but traditionalism is seeing a revival among the young clergy and some of the younger generation. The tug-of-war match in the Catholic Church that has been raging for decades will doubtless continue for years to come, but the progressives certainly outnumber the traditionalists.
 
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GooFYone

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What do you think of the doctrine of mortal sin? This doctrine is often associated with Catholicism and says that some sins are so grievous as to require a special form of repentance or reparation.

According to the doctrine, these sins, when done with freedom and knowledge, place one outside of salvation. That is, when one commits a mortal sin they move from a "state of grace" into a "state of sin," and must repent of the sin in order to be forgiven and move back into a "state of grace." An example of a mortal sin would be murder. Less grievous sins are called venial sins and do not have such a dramatic effect on one's life of faith. The closest scriptural parallel is 1 John 5:16-17.

This is just the basic idea, and this thread isn't meant to be about Catholicism or the specific Catholic understanding which involves sacramental confession and the like. This basic doctrine of mortal sin entails only a few things besides mortal sin. They are: venial sin, the state of grace, and the state of sin. I think most denominations hold to this doctrine in one form or another.

I have scrutinized the doctrine to some extent and I find that I am content with it. There are obviously pros and cons:


Cons and Objections
  • Emphasis is placed on the human act and one's ability to place themselves outside of salvation.
  • It may lead to a scrupulosity which focuses more on sin than on God.
  • It may lead to undue self-referentiality about the state of one's soul.
  • Without an authoritative legislator it is hard to understand which sins are mortal and which are venial.

Pros
  • The gravity of certain sins is emphasized. This is intuitive and follows the OT logic of differentiating based on the sin in question.
  • The doctrine threads a needle between the errors of presumption and despair.
  • It brings a concreteness to one's religious life that makes it much harder to deceive oneself.
  • The doctrine appears to be indispensable for the vast majority of Christians, namely those who reject both Universalism and OSAS ("Once-saved, Always-saved").
If one rejoices in sin and decides to sin, isn’t that a choice to be a sinner instead of a follower of Christ?

We have scripture to help us understand better. The Holy Bible.
What do you think of the doctrine of mortal sin? This doctrine is often associated with Catholicism and says that some sins are so grievous as to require a special form of repentance or reparation.

According to the doctrine, these sins, when done with freedom and knowledge, place one outside of salvation. That is, when one commits a mortal sin they move from a "state of grace" into a "state of sin," and must repent of the sin in order to be forgiven and move back into a "state of grace." An example of a mortal sin would be murder. Less grievous sins are called venial sins and do not have such a dramatic effect on one's life of faith. The closest scriptural parallel is 1 John 5:16-17.

This is just the basic idea, and this thread isn't meant to be about Catholicism or the specific Catholic understanding which involves sacramental confession and the like. This basic doctrine of mortal sin entails only a few things besides mortal sin. They are: venial sin, the state of grace, and the state of sin. I think most denominations hold to this doctrine in one form or another.

I have scrutinized the doctrine to some extent and I find that I am content with it. There are obviously pros and cons:


Cons and Objections
  • Emphasis is placed on the human act and one's ability to place themselves outside of salvation.
  • It may lead to a scrupulosity which focuses more on sin than on God.
  • It may lead to undue self-referentiality about the state of one's soul.
  • Without an authoritative legislator it is hard to understand which sins are mortal and which are venial.

Pros
  • The gravity of certain sins is emphasized. This is intuitive and follows the OT logic of differentiating based on the sin in question.
  • The doctrine threads a needle between the errors of presumption and despair.
  • It brings a concreteness to one's religious life that makes it much harder to deceive oneself.
  • The doctrine appears to be indispensable for the vast majority of Christians, namely those who reject both Universalism and OSAS ("Once-saved, Always-saved").
2 Peter 2 KJV is a good verse for that.

“Which have forsaken the right way, and are gone astray, following the way of Balaam the son of Bosor, who loved the wages of unrighteousness;”

The whole chapter if you are actually interested in understanding it better.
 
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Hmm

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I see four conceivable options regarding the atonement. Christ satisfied the wrath of God for:
  1. All sins of all men
  2. Some sins of all men
  3. Some sins of some men
  4. All sins of some men
The first option gives us universalism, which is prohibited by Scripture. The second and third options render Christ a failed savior, for the sins of no men are atoned for in full and no one is saved. The fourth option is Biblical and is what is called definite atonement or particular redemption. I suspect you see another option and am happy to hear your position.

Your fourth option is, of course, not Biblical as you claim. Can you provide any scripture that Christ died for "All sins of some men".

I'd be more interested in seeing a scriptural passage btw than another long exposition. I expect an exposition though because there is no such passage.

The Bible say that Christ died for all, not an ill-defined "elect. Twist and make of that as you will.
 
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Gregory Thompson

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What do you think of the doctrine of mortal sin? This doctrine is often associated with Catholicism and says that some sins are so grievous as to require a special form of repentance or reparation.

According to the doctrine, these sins, when done with freedom and knowledge, place one outside of salvation. That is, when one commits a mortal sin they move from a "state of grace" into a "state of sin," and must repent of the sin in order to be forgiven and move back into a "state of grace." An example of a mortal sin would be murder. Less grievous sins are called venial sins and do not have such a dramatic effect on one's life of faith. The closest scriptural parallel is 1 John 5:16-17.

This is just the basic idea, and this thread isn't meant to be about Catholicism or the specific Catholic understanding which involves sacramental confession and the like. This basic doctrine of mortal sin entails only a few things besides mortal sin. They are: venial sin, the state of grace, and the state of sin. I think most denominations hold to this doctrine in one form or another.

I have scrutinized the doctrine to some extent and I find that I am content with it. There are obviously pros and cons:


Cons and Objections
  • Emphasis is placed on the human act and one's ability to place themselves outside of salvation.
  • It may lead to a scrupulosity which focuses more on sin than on God.
  • It may lead to undue self-referentiality about the state of one's soul.
  • Without an authoritative legislator it is hard to understand which sins are mortal and which are venial.

Pros
  • The gravity of certain sins is emphasized. This is intuitive and follows the OT logic of differentiating based on the sin in question.
  • The doctrine threads a needle between the errors of presumption and despair.
  • It brings a concreteness to one's religious life that makes it much harder to deceive oneself.
  • The doctrine appears to be indispensable for the vast majority of Christians, namely those who reject both Universalism and OSAS ("Once-saved, Always-saved").
The bible does talk about how sin when fully grown becomes death, and that death is the power of the devil.

So I can see from spiritual phenomena and these illustrations in scripture, people having sin that matures into death, and death that matures in to demonic.

When sin matures into death, confessing it isn't enough anymore.

This is why John writes in his letter,

1Jo 5:16 If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it.

The mortal sin doctrine stating you are damned if you are committing a mortal sin and then die, sound like 1 John 5:16 was interpreted to give up altogether.
 
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Hmm

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@zippy2006, @fhansen, and @Hmm I intend to respond to your posts when I have more time. I've been very busy the past few days. Thanks for your patience! :)

No worries but please remember that you won't need much time to respond to my question because I only want a simple Yes or No :)
 
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zippy2006

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Yes, something like that. Intuitively, we consider murder worse than theft, and I am generally in favour of such moral distinctions. In fact, that is how I generally argue that there must be a real moral order, as some things are just clearly worse than others (feeding as opposed to hurting a child, say). But beyond realising the malevolent nature of a sin, can we finely grade them at all? Heading into Catholic territory, what of concepts such as the Cardinal Sins? Are these not sins that lead to, and generate, other sin? Many of them seem intuitively venial, such as Pride. What is the thinking of that classification versus the mortal/venial one?

Yes, that is a different classification. The Cardinal Sins have more to do with generation than gravity, as you note.

But then, mortal sins can seem venial at the time, perhaps - here I would think of something like the Golden Calf, which would be idolatry (presumably mortal) but to Aaron, he was making an image of 'the God that led us from Egypt'. He was trying to worship God, but that sin of not trusting to Moses' return or the providence of God, lead to idolatry. Can a venial sin not really then be a mortal one, if the root of greater sin? If the severity of the sin is judged on the object and not the intention, then the well-intentioned Aaron's sin is thus that much worse? Good intentions pave the way to Hell, indeed.

Yes, a venial sin could be mortal if it is "the root" of a mortal sin. A good intention could mitigate a sin, but not undo it. I don't think Catholics would say that a good intention could make a mortal sin venial, but apart from that it could reduce the gravity of any given sin. There is quite a bit of fluidity in the doctrine.

Why must the proximate act take precedence? The question here is what is the problem with sin? Is its immediate results the issue, or its ultimate potential to bring distance between us and God? As was pointed out earlier in the thread, Adam willingly ate the fruit in the garden, and that act has had the unintended consequence of all further sin. The act of disobeying God is put in the shadow by the consequences of the Fall, and like the Cardinal sins (which I would assume this to be a species of Pride and Greed, maybe?), the innocuous was far worse.

I think the proximate act--that which is done, that which is intended, and the immediate aftermath--needs to take precedence over remote and unintended consequences. I think this is so because sin and culpability primarily applies to that which is in our control and which we understand to be in our control. It may be that I am somehow responsible for everyone else's sin, but I certainly can't explain how that is the case. I need to take responsibility first and foremost for those things that I can understand myself to be responsible for.

This is also intuitive, as for instance the Nazi idealogue pushing for racial purity is generally considered more to blame than the SS grunt that carried it out. In my latter example it was perhaps intentional, but what of the potential of consequence is known, even if unintended?

...Then we have an instance of double-effect, which is notoriously difficult. :D...

Here for instance, I would think of someone watching inappropriate contentography, and thus tacitly accepting the potential fact that it might have been exploitative or paying for further production of such? I would make perhaps a differentiation between Justice, which would focus on the act; and sin, which is more of a stain spread over spiritual communion between God and man, no?

Is the distinction between what we owe to man and what we owe to God? Between our relationship with men and our relationship with God? I think that's a reasonable distinction.

I think you are right that sin refers us to God whereas vice or crime refers us to other humans or nature, but I also think that mortal and venial sin is focused on that spiritual communion between God and man. Many authors speak about mortal sin as breaking that communion and venial sin as injuring it. At the same time a single act could be both a sin and a crime, something against God and against man. This is quite common.

I don't agree that morality should focus on malice, which seems more at play if you are seeking punitive measures or retribution, acting in Law. Doestoyevsky's principle draws us away from that, I agree, but did Jesus not say to turn the other cheek and remove the beam from your own eye? To return to another of his works, Crime and Punishment, that crime is more Transgression in the Russian supposedly, to overstep, and it was Raskolnikov's supposed good ends, but also the malice of the pawnbroker, that made him commit the crime.

I mostly just meant that morality ought to criticize the badness of the moral act under the aspect of volitional faults such as malice or selfishness rather than under the aspect of unintended consequences. The fault could also lie in undue proportion, inconsiderateness, overstepping, etc. I think some of that can be reduced to selfishness, but maybe not all of it. I agree that malice is not the only possible problem. I realize that doesn't altogether answer your point, but malice is slippery. We can talk about it more if you'd like.

I do not think it is at all clear that sin is based on individual culpability scripturally. What about all that about reckoning the sins of the fathers onto his descendants for 7 generations? Or original sin, for that matter. The legal metaphor is an easy one to apply, but I am not sure that is what is going on here at all. Is sin not when you do not love God or your neighbour, the image of God? Is it not staining or obscuring your own status as the image of God?

I agree that sin occurs when you do not love God or neighbor, but "you" is the key word. I don't sin when my great-grandpa fails to love God or neighbor. I agree that scripture is confusing on the question of individual culpability, but I am not aware of a strong case for the degree of corporate culpability that holds an unborn descendent responsible for the sin of his ancestor. There are also notable scriptural counter-examples to such an approach (e.g. Ezekiel 18:20). Anyway, I'm worried that this topic could take us too far afield.

True, it is thus selfishness, but why must there be intentionality, unless you are intent to set-up a penitentiary framework? So I think the difference here may lie deeper, that I do not fear Doestoyevsky's principle, as I do not think that it draws away from selfishness - it focuses on it, as it shows that it is not just about me, but about everyone else. It is Father Zosima vs Father Ferrapont in Brothers Karamazov, the more indulgent acceptor of sin unto himself vs the harsh ascetic - Jesus and John the baptist also spring to mind.

That's true, and I think that is the beauty of the passages of literature you are citing. I think either approach can be taken too far (individual and corporate). Dostoevsky's principle can even be twisted to induce selfishness, namely when the person borders on solipsism and refuses to grant autonomy and a share in culpability to others. That is to say, there is also humility in accepting that others make choices which you have no control over. A classic example would be the small child who blames themselves for their parents' divorce. I think there needs to be a balance, but these are interesting and difficult questions.

But then, I am Protestant, so the sacrament of Penitence is foreign to my thinking in general, and I can see how it can confuse sin and forgiveness into an accountant's ledger. However, reifying the principle into concrete things, tablets of stone, is needed for a moral code as you noted with an 'external legislator' - as humans are not always so good with such things. This makes me think again of CS Lewis's bit about the difference between Protestants and Catholics:

Yes, that's a fascinating quote.

Okay, if you differentiate one as more, the other automatically becomes less. Ultimately what saves from Hell is grace, so this runs against the old grace vs works narrative again. If you deny that works save, then they also don't condemn in the face of grace? A bad work, a mortal sin, should be powerless before real grace then. The Lutheran objection is not just that people falsely believe themselves condemned, but that this suggests that human depravity can somehow overpower God's grace.

Okay, true.

But can sinful acts result in good? I am not so sure. The only way I think they could be, is by allowing God's grace, so the only felix culpa could be Adam's leading to the incarnation, or Judas' leading to the Crucifixion. Throttling baby Hitlers in the crib is an unknown and unknowable quantity, and generally sin seems to beget sin, unless by Grace of God. I have no reason to think a good outcome would ever result from a sin, and even if it did, perhaps it would have been better otherwise.

In general I agree with you on this. There is good reason to believe that sin begets sin.

This looks a fruitful avenue to investigate. Only mortal and one assumes a harsh legalist, only venial and a universalist. But this assumes that sin must be either mortal or venial - I would assume sin to be both mortal and venial in a sense, in that the wages thereof are death, but that those wages were paid for on the Cross. If the goal is to embody Christ, then all sin is to be avoided, but if we have failed from the weakness of our flesh, to return penitently to Him. Maybe not someone believing in mortal sin and venial sin, but in mortal venial sin. I don't know, how do we test this? By their fruits? Would that not deteriorate into this denomination is more holy than that one, which seems again to feel Pharisaical.

I don't know, I'll mull on this. I still feel that the immediate act is less than the totality of its effects within holistic creation, and that judgement is of course only God's to make. But as you say, that is very consequence-based, and moral evil should be judged on its spiritual stain to that being, perhaps.

I think some of this can be reconciled by saying that the human approach to morality and sin is necessarily limited and therefore a line must be drawn somewhere. I think intentionality is a good place to start for marking out that line. We try to identify, avoid, and repent of sin the best we can, and it will be imperfect. It is likely that Dostoevsky saw a truth in the depths of reality, but I think we need to be careful about how we appropriate and incorporate that truth into our own understanding. Perhaps the Russian discovered an exceedingly sharp sword, but I don't believe that everyone is meant to handle it--particularly the shoddy swordsmen. :D
 
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fhansen

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The argument seems to be that some sins create a break in our relationship to God in a way that others don’t. Many people think a life of continuing sin can cause a Christian to lose faith and thus salvation. Personally, I’m not sure whether sin is a cause or a symptom in this kind of situation, but certainly people do fall away. At any rate, I don’t think that a checklist of potentially mortal sins is likely to be a good way to describe this process. I doubt that it’s the best way to deal with it pastorally either.
What I've come to appreciate about the Catholic position is that it preserves Scripture's insistence that sinners don't enter heaven-and that we must be firmly on the path of lawfulness as believers here on earth (now enabled for that by the indwelling of God), while also understanding that we'll still struggle with sin while in these bodies. And so it teaches we can lose our state of justice, by living/acting very unjustly-unlike children of God-and that the sin that kills, that excludes us from union with Him IOW, is still able to be overcome by repentance with a true change of heart. And that while all sin tends to lead us away from God, there are many, lesser, sins that are not a direct strike against love of God and neighbor. Mortal sin is said to be just that, directly opposed to the love that otherwise fulfills the law (Rom 13:10).

The real bottom line is that man was never created to be a sinner and that he's still obligated to be obedient and righteous under the New Covenant, but by that Covenant man becomes "partnered" with God, as he was always intended to be, such that the Spirit can now overcome sin in us (Jer 31:33). Fallen man's chief problem is and will always be spiritual separation from his Creator, to no longer know God. And this loss of knowledge, this "lostness" for man, was initiated for humankind by Adam's act of disobedience.

One inherent problem in observing or practicing virtually any aspect of our faith is to do so mechanically and legalistically, a very human tendency. But the basic concept behind the Catholic doctrine of sin and it’s ability to still earn us death is solid IMO.

And confusion enters the scene when we hold that righteousness is solely imputed to man at justification, as if he’s strictly forgiven rather than also washed, cleansed, made new creations enabled by the Spirit to live according to God’s will. If justification consists of a merely imputed justice given, rather than real justice given, then of course it becomes more problematic to answer the question as to whether or not man can lose justice or righteousness by living/acting unjustly. Similarly, if faith is seen to sort of “stand in” for righteousness or justice, rather than being the means to it, then the same question causing the same tension exists: can any sin destroy my relationship with God and therefore my state of justice so long as I resolutely continue to believe in any case?
 
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zippy2006

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If I am understanding this correctly, then the difference is more degree than kind?

Hehe... It wouldn't generally be described as a difference of degree, but that's pretty much the way I described it so clearly I'm struggling. ^_^

There is something generically different about mortal and venial sin, and this can be approached by way of things like (intrinsic) reparability and whether God himself is shunned or opposed by way of the sin. There is also something in the manner of "degree," particularly when we are talking about sins which are venial because of a lack of knowledge or consent. Nevertheless, venial sin is never sin in its fulness. It always departs from sin qua sin in one way or another. (Thomas writes on the question here)

One rule of thumb that gets at the difference is this. Suppose you sin. Looking back on the sin, someone asks you the question, "If you had believed that this sin would have destroyed your spiritual communion with God, would you have done it anyway?" If you answer "yes" then the sin was mortal. If you answer "no" then the sin was venial. ...that's an imperfect heuristic, but I think it gets at the idea. Ultimately sin is preferring something over God.

That venial sin is sin inchoate, that may then develop into a full mortal variety? So is the classification of sins as mortal or venial not then essentially just shorthand, so that a theft might be mortal as directly "contrary to God's Law" as in the 10 commandments, unless done without full knowledge or understanding of the consequence thereof?

Yes, but that is only one kind of venial sin. You speak to the other one:

How is something at variance vs contrary, as any wrong could then be or become mortal, too.

That's a good question. Part of it might be that it is not in conformance with God's positive laws, even though it does not violate any negative laws. For example, there might be a failure to love that is not an act of hatred. Presumably that particular sin of omission would be a venial sin. Thomas tends to approach it through the lens of reason. Here is his response to the same objection you give:

The division of sin into venial and mortal is not a division of a genus into its species which have an equal share of the generic nature: but it is the division of an analogous term into its parts, of which it is predicated, of the one first, and of the other afterwards. Consequently the perfect notion of sin, which Augustine gives, applies to mortal sin. On the other hand, venial sin is called a sin, in reference to an imperfect notion of sin, and in relation to mortal sin: even as an accident is called a being, in relation to substance, in reference to the imperfect notion of being. For it is not "against" the law, since he who sins venially neither does what the law forbids, nor omits what the law prescribes to be done; but he acts "beside" the law, through not observing the mode of reason, which the law intends. (link)
The other important thing to remember is that for Catholics all human acts (basically everything we do with some degree of intention) is a moral act. So turning on your windshield wipers is a moral act. Now failing or forgetting to turn on your windshield wipers when it is raining is dumb, contrary to reason, life-endangering to a small degree, etc. Yet it is not contrary to the divine law in any direct way. Therefore it is a venial sin. That's a strange example, but it may be that the Catholic understanding of moral action requires the mortal/venial distinction more than a theory which considers the vast majority of acts morally neutral.

Is a knowing theft of a chocolate bar not then mortal, or is there not an implied additional dimension in practice, where the act itself is also differentiated out by value or severity - so that theft of a chocolate is venial, but theft of someone's house might not be? If the person judges the sin of lower value, is that sin then really so? I mean, many people might pinch a chocolate, but would balk at stealing something larger, say. What I mean is that would the finality of the act to that person then render it mortal, being a full rejection to them of some point of God's law? And if they feel it not so, or judge it not at variance, would we be judging it from an external standard? I doubt many Catholics would judge stealing a chocolate as placing them mortally wounded before God, in the way they might judge an abortion or murder, for instance.

These are great questions, and I should have better answers ready-to-hand. Unfortunately I've been busy the last few days and my mind is a bit frazzled. There is a way in which intention can make mortal acts venial (by way of knowledge and consent) and a way in which it can make good acts bad (as Paul notes about conscience and meat sacrificed to idols). Still, your question about whether petty theft must be considered a mortal sin when considered apart from intention is a good question.

Glancing at the Summa, Thomas classes theft as generically mortal (link). Your objection is represented in the third objection. I don't know if you've read much of Thomas, but his response to the third objection is fairly clear so I won't try to reproduce it here.

I am getting a bit muddled by the whole concept, and would like some clarity. For instance, the Catholic Church is opposed to abortion as presumably a mortal sin, and pro-choice catholics are likely aware of this. Could they then not argue it venial, on grounds of mixed signals from liberal clergy or society in general, if they even consider it sin - or would the severity of the infringement render it mortal, regardless?

Hmm... I mean, they could certainly argue it venial. If proper authorities convince someone that abortion is a small matter and they commit abortion then they are acting with confused knowledge and the severity of sin will be mitigated, perhaps even to become venial. I realize some Catholics would begrudge me saying it, but the severity of the infringement can never override the principles that regard knowledge and consent. There is perhaps an example of this during the supremely grave sin of deicide, "Forgive them, Father, for they know not what they do..."
 
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fhansen

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Justifying faith not being a knowledge or acknowledgement, a "I believe these things happened", but rather the transformed orientation in relation to God by trust, the passive reception of God's gifts. A Christ-facing orientation. Like God unbending a broken and bent rod of iron, a turning of the wayward face toward Himself.
I don’t think this directly addresses the issue though. While also in Catholicism faith is commonly used in the way you’ve described, it’s true that the formal historical dogmatic teachings view faith as “intellectual consent”. But the virtue of hope, instead, is taught to actually be that disposition by which a believer places their trust and confidence in God and His promises based on the revelation, the words and deeds, of Christ.

So the same concept exists in Catholicism nonetheless. Faith is considered to be “the beginning of human salvation, the foundation and root of all justification, without which it is impossible to please God” according to Church teachings. In any case, the real question IMO concerns what faith is meant to effect or result in within us: how, exactly, it justifies us; what justification actually entails.
 
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