Understanding "the beginning" and "the end"

sovereigngrace

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Intro

The unindoctrinated Bible student should have no difficulty in understanding the meaning and weightiness of the phrases/events “the beginning” and “the end.” That is because they mean what they say. These expressions are often used on their own throughout Scripture because the Holy Spirit evidently expects the believer to take God literally at His Word and accept these plain and obvious statements at face value.

Whether one is reading a book, watching a movie, or observing a ball-game, the concept of “the beginning” and “the end” of something is too obvious to even debate or explain. Hello! It is as clear as clear can be. We are talking about normal 101 common sense. One is the complete antithesis of the other.

When it comes to this scene of time, Scripture makes clear that it is not going to last forever. It shows that this current fallen corrupted realm has an expiration date. Just like there was a beginning to this earth, time, human life, and creation, there will equally be an end.

For example, look at what Solomon declared in Ecclesiastes 3:11: “He hath made every thing beautiful in his time: also he hath set the world in their heart, so that no man can find out the work that God maketh from the beginning to the end.”

Would an objective Christian question the meaning of “the beginning” and “the end” here? I don’t think so! It is plain in its import and context.

The Old Testament prophets and the New Testament writers frequently referred to the beginning of creation, this world, time, and life as simply “the beginning” and the termination of time, the removal of the bondage of corruption and the introduction of the new eternal state as “the end.”

Premillennialists, and a growing number of Preterists, try to dilute the normal and accepted meaning of the phrase of “the end” to totally negate its obvious meaning in order to support their preconceived doctrine. While they have no difficulty whatsoever comprehending the meaning of the phrase “the beginning” because it does not interfere with their theology, they seem to get sudden brain freeze, spiritual rickets and quickly go cross-eyed when it comes to the meaning of the phrase “the end.” That is because it cuts across their theology. The end cannot be the end in their theology but must rather be a parenthesis in history along the road on the way to “the end” in order to let their doctrine fit. In doing this, Premils totally negate the very meaning of this familiar phrase and climactic event.

Hebrews 1:10-12 tells us, Thou, Lord, in the beginning [Gr. archē] hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands: They shall perish; but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old [Gr. palaioo] as doth a garment; And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed [Gr. allasso]: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail.”

Here we see the duration of this current earth and the whole span of time outlined from the beginning till the end. This corresponds with the current creation around us. It describes the forming of the earth (which was originally perfect), followed by the gradual decay after the Fall (because of the bondage of corruption), and its final replacement at the end to a new glorified eternal incorrupt status.

The two words that are used in the New Testament to describe the start and finish of this current temporal state of time are archē meaning “beginning” and telos meaning end. The word archē basically means the origin or the commencement. The word telos means the termination, completion or that by which a thing is finished. Notably, the Bible continually relates this phrase “the end” (telos) to the second coming. The Lord’s return is shown to usher in the completion of this age and of time.

Scripture constantly shows the creation of this earth and the beginning of this world to be the beginning of this age. Likewise, the end of this world and the regeneration of this earth is repeatedly shown to correspond with the end of this age. Time and history find themselves sandwiched in between these two great events. Simply put: “this age” refers to “time”; “the age to come” or the “hereafter” refers to “eternity.”

Time and eternity

Time had a beginning, just like this world had a beginning. Time will have an end, just like this current corrupt earth will have an end. Eternity, on the other hand, has neither a beginning nor an end. Eternity always was, and always will be. Eternity has no measure of anything including time and seasons – it is forever. God lives in eternity and His perspective of time far exceeds the finite mind of man. Time is nothing with the Lord. A ‘thousand years’ in this life is but a flash in the light of eternity.

Before the beginning (the first 7 days) there was simply space and eternity. Basically: (eternity and space) – time – (eternity and space).

The sun and moon brought order and time

As a preamble, or a fleeting precursor and preparative arrangement, to the creation of the sun and moon on the 4th day, God created light to divide the day from night – showing what was about to come. Without that there was no way of separating one day from another, and even having a morning and evening. How that looked, we do not get much detail in Scripture. It was obviously a temporary and provisional arrangement (for 3 days) which mirrored and preceded the function of the sun and moon, which would ultimately divide day from night and determine time. This was brief and interim, because the calendar and time is shown in Scripture to be determined by the sun and moon.

Of course, God gave the sun, moon and stars to give physical light to the earth. But they were also given in order to measure time. These brought distinct order, systematic structure and identifiable chronology. It is from this that we get classifiable years, months, days, hours and seconds.

Genesis 1:14-18: "And God said, Let there be lights in the firmament of the heaven to divide the day from the night; and let them be for signs, and for seasons, and for days, and years: And let them be for lights in the firmament of the heaven to give light upon the earth: and it was so. And God made two great lights; the greater light to rule the day, and the lesser light to rule the night: he made the stars also. And God set them in the firmament of the heaven to give light upon the earth, And to rule over the day and over the night, and to divide the light from the darkness: and God saw that it was good."

Time revolves around day and night – the sun and the moon. That is where order and regularity began. So, we know there was a beginning to time (creation of the sun and moon), and I believe there will be an end of time.

The beginning

There was a beginning to this world, to time and to life on this planet. There was also a beginning to sin, death and corruption that blighted this earth. There will likewise be a renewal of this earth back to what it was originally intended to be when Jesus comes at the end and a termination of all death, decay and degeneration (physically and morally).

Scripture talks a lot about “the beginning” (Genesis 1:1, Proverbs 8:23, Ecclesiastes 3:12, Isaiah 41:4 Isaiah 41:26 Isaiah 48:3, 5, 7 & 16, Matthew 19:4 & 8, John 1:1 & 2, 8:44, 2 Thessalonians 2:13, Hebrews 1:10 and 1 John 3:8). This was the occasion when the things we know and see now began.

Heaven and earth created at the beginning

Genesis 1:1 tells us that the heaven and earth were “created” at “the beginning” by “God.” So, we know that this physical world, earth or globe had a “beginning.” Isaiah 40:21-22 talks about God sitting “upon the circle of the earth” at the beginning. Various Scripture speaks about “the foundation of the world/earth” (Psalm 102:25, Zechariah 12:1, Matt 13:35, 25:34, Luke 11:50, John 17:24, Ephesians 1:4, Hebrews 4:3, Hebrews 9:26, 1 Peter 1:20, Revelation 13:8 and Revelation 17:8).

Scripture locates “the foundations of the earth” at “the beginning.” Isaiah 64:4 and Matthew 24:21 also speak about “the beginning of the world.” Hebrews 1:10 confirms: “Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands.”

Time?

There are two main Greek words for time in Scripture: chronos meaning a duration of time and kairos which refers to a decisive point in time or a definite period or season of time. The meaning of the word chronos is a duration of time that can be measured. Chronos is the interval of time between two successive events. Kairos can refer both to a key point in time or a measurable period. Another Greek word we find in the New Testament is hora, which literally means ‘an hour’, but can also figuratively describe an era of time or a season. Context normally determines which it is.

These words are sometimes used in Scripture to describe a biblical age. This is a unique and distinct period of time, specifically identified in Scripture by the Holy Spirit.

The beginning of age

Luke 1:70: “he spake by the mouth of his prophets, which have been since the world [Gr. aion or age] began.”

The phrase “since age” can have no other meaning than “from the beginning of creation.” It would be wrong to interpret it in any other way.

The skeptical Pharisees doubted the healing of a blind man in John 9:32, saying: Since the world [Gr. aion or age] began was it not heard that any man opened the eyes of one that was born blind.”

In their disbelief, they were affirming that they have never heard of such a thing ever happening throughout history. The contention of these religious cynics was plainly referring to the whole period of time from the beginning of creation.

Acts 15:18: “Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world [Gr. aion or age].”

This is undoubtedly referring back to the beginning of time. The fortune of this world is inextricably tied to the existence of this age.

Ephesians 3:9: “And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world [Gr. aion – meaning age] hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ.”

This text is telling us that right from the very start, the “fellowship of the mystery” has “been hid in God” from “the beginning of age.” This is simply telling us that this has been the story of man from the start.

The literal reading of the original Greek here, “the beginning of age,” is carefully linked to creation.

Romans 16:25-26: “Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world [Gr. chronos aionios] began, But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith.”

Again, we are looking here at the broad span of history, right back to the beginning of time.

Titus 1:2 similarly says: “In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world [Gr. aionios] began.”

This text tells us that the promise of man’s salvation was purposed in the mind of God before time and age began. It was conceived in eternity!

Biblical truth is normally gleaned by comparing like Scripture with like. It helps to put the divine jigsaw puzzle together in regard to the heart and mind of God. These phrases of “since the age began” or “the beginning of the age” correspond with the similar biblical expression “from the beginning of the creation,” which we find in different places in the New Testament.

Time began at creation

Romans 16:25-26 adds more meat on the bones: “Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began [Gr. chronos aionios sigao], But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith.”

The literally meaning here is: “the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret [since the] chronology or time of the ages.” This is telling us that from when time began Romans 16:25-26 adds more meat on the bones. It is declaring that the mystery in view has been concealed since time began. That time goes back to when time was recordable in the book of Genesis.

The New Living Translation reads: “Now all glory to God, who is able to make you strong, just as my Good News says. This message about Jesus Christ has revealed his plan for you Gentiles, a plan kept secret from the beginning of time.

Darby Bible Translation translates it: “Now to him that is able to establish you, according to my glad tidings and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to [the] revelation of [the] mystery, as to which silence has been kept in [the] times of the ages.”

The Young's Literal Translation reads: “And to Him who is able to establish you, according to my good news, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the secret, in the times of the ages having been kept silent.”

Titus 1:2 says: “In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began [Gr. pro chronos aionios].”

The literally meaning here is: “before chronology or time of the ages.”

This again tells us that there is a starting point at the beginning for time. There will also consequently be an end to time and a beginning of eternity. Scripture shows this to be Christ’s glorious all-consummating return.

Darby Bible Translation translates it: “in the hope of eternal life, which God, who cannot lie, promised before the ages of time.”

The English Standard Version reads: “in hope of eternal life, which God, who never lies, promised before the ages began.”

The Holman Christian Standard Bible reads: “in the hope of eternal life that God, who cannot lie, promised before time began.”

The Jubilee Bible 2000 reads: “for the hope of eternal life, which God, who cannot lie, promised before the times of the ages.”

The Young's Literal Translation reads: “upon hope of life age-during, which God, who doth not lie, did promise before times of ages.”

The New International Version reads: “in the hope of eternal life, which God, who does not lie, promised before the beginning of time.”

Basically, before the chronology of the ages, before time came into being, before man ever fell, God promised to bring eternal life to this world.

2 Timothy 1:8-9 similarly says: “Be not thou therefore ashamed of the testimony of our Lord, nor of me his prisoner: but be thou partaker of the afflictions of the gospel according to the power of God; Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began [Gr. pro chronos aionios].”

The literally meaning here is: “before chronology or time of the ages.”

No one can doubt the repeated emphasis on the beginning of time. It is clearly taught and easily understood by the unindoctrinated.

Darby Bible Translation translates it: “who has saved us, and has called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to [his] own purpose and grace, which [was] given to us in Christ Jesus before [the] ages of time.”

The English Standard Version reads: “in hope of eternal life, which God, who never lies, promised before the ages began.”

The Holman Christian Standard Bible reads: “He has saved us and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace, which was given to us in Christ Jesus before time began.”

The Jubilee Bible 2000 reads: “who has saved us and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the times of the ages.

The Young's Literal Translation reads: “who did save us, and did call with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace, that was given to us in Christ Jesus, before the times of the ages.”

The New International Version reads: “He has saved us and called us to a holy life--not because of anything we have done but because of his own purpose and grace. This grace was given us in Christ Jesus before the beginning of time.”
 
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sovereigngrace

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Humans created at the beginning

Jesus said in Mark 10:6: “from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.”

This text speaks clearly and loudly for itself. Jesus, here, locates the existence of human beings on the earth: at “the beginning of the creation,” not (notably) thousands or millions of years after it was created, as the evolutionist claim. The phrase used here “the beginning of the creation” corresponds with the frequent phrase “the beginning of age.” These two phrases are synonymous. It is certainly not speaking about the beginning of the Mosaic age, as Preterists sometimes argue.

Jesus similarly said in Matthew 19:4: “Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female.”

As you peruse Scripture, we see different references placing the existence of man right back to the beginning. The meaning of “the beginning” is clear to the simple.

For example, Jesus taught in Mark 13:19: “For in those days shall be affliction, such as was not from the beginning of the creation which God created unto this time, neither shall be.”

Here, Christ is speaking about the judgment of Israel in AD70, and tracing the truth being expressed about man suffering right back to the beginning. He says there would be a time of suffering for Israel not seen in its wholesale enormity and destruction of a complete religion from when man was first on the earth at “the beginning of the creation.” Christ is telling us that the affliction here will be so intense that it will be unparalleled in human history. The beginning of creation therefore refers to the beginning of this world, or the beginning of time or the beginning of age. These are all synonymous statements.

2 Peter 3:3-4 makes a similar reference, only referring to the nature of the foolish mocking of the end-time sceptics scoffing the reality of Christ’s coming. He says: “there shall come in the last days scoffers, walking after their own lusts, And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation.”

Basically, Peter is saying that the end time scoffers will mock that the second coming is not happening because nothing has changed for mankind since “the beginning of the creation.” This reference in the mockers taunt is clearly referring to the full span of human history. It is recording the cynicism of the scoffers questioning the reality of our Lord’s future coming. In this, they join many Preterists.

Time measurement comes to an end when Jesus comes

In Revelation 3:11-12, Christ promises His people, while also speaking of His glorious all-consummating Second Advent, “Behold, I come quickly: hold that fast which thou hast, that no man take thy crown. Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name.”

This second coming passage confirms our notion. The heavenly city comes down from heaven with Christ when He returns.

Further evidence that the prepared New Jerusalem is coming down to the new earth is found in Revelation 21:1-4. It declares, “And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea. And I John saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down from God out of heaven, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband. And I heard a great voice out of heaven saying, Behold, the tabernacle of God is with men, and he will dwell with them, and they shall be his people, and God himself shall be with them, and be their God.”

We have already noticed in Genesis 1:14-18 how God has furnished mankind with the sun, moon and stars to give light and also to gauge time. But Scripture teaches that these will not last forever. They will be with us as long as there is time. Without them we do not have time. When Jesus comes these are rendered unnecessary and redundant. That is because God is the eternal light that will light eternity. We find support for this in Revelation 21:23 and 22:5.

Revelation 21:23 records: And the city had no need of the sun, neither of the moon, to shine in it: for the glory of God did lighten it, and the Lamb is the light thereof.”

Revelation 22:5 testifies: And there shall be no night there; and they need no candle, neither light of the sun; for the Lord God giveth them light: and they shall reign for ever and ever.”

There are no sun or moon in eternity. There is no day or night in eternity. There is no divisions of years, months, days, hours and seconds. We have one eternal unbroken day/age.

There are no sun or moon in eternity. There is no day or night in eternity. There is no divisions of years, months, days, hours and seconds. We have one eternal unbroken day/age.

When, according to Scripture, is "the end"?

We have seen from various Scripture that “the beginning” of this age kicked in at the beginning of creation. Well, Scripture also equally delineates that the end of this age will occur at the restoration of creation, the time when Jesus returns to make all things new. When man fell, all creation experienced the awful consequences of that tragedy and fell with him. The curse upon man caused the curse to fall upon this earth. The curse upon both is equally lifted simultaneously when Jesus returns.

Paul confirms the finality of the return of Jesus, in 1 Corinthians 15:22-24, stating, “as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming [Gr. parousia]. Then cometh the end [Gr. telos], when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.”

Please note the careful correlation between the parousia and the telos. This is a truth that is found throughout the NT. They are synonymous with each other. There is absolutely nothing that Premils can do with such a clear and climactic passage apart from deny the obvious or add unto Scripture by inserting “a thousand years” in-between the coming (parousia) of Christ and the end (telos) where it does not belong. This is the dilemma for Premil throughout the Word. They are fighting the obvious. They are fighting God’s truth.

The Greek simply reads:

Christos – Christ
en – at
autos – His
parousia – coming
eita – then
telos – the end

The coming of the Lord is shown to be the end of the world.

The phrase “he shall have delivered up” comes from the single Greek word paradidomi meaning surrender, yield up, intrust, or transmit. This is what happens to the kingdom when Christ comes. He surrenders it to His Father, He yields it up.

The converse phrase “he shall have put down” comes from the single Greek word katargeo meaning: bring to nought, none effect, or abolish. This is what happens to “all” existing “rule and all authority and power” when Jesus Comes. The rule of man comes to an end and now it becomes the rule of God.

The “coming” of the Lord, described in this reading, is here carefully located at “the end.” In fact, the whole tenure of the passage is distinctly pointing to a climactic time in history when God separates righteousness and wickedness forever. It is the occasion approaching when Christ finally presents “up the kingdom to God” and will have, as He promised, “put down all rule and all authority and power.” Simultaneously, the glorification of the kingdom of God sees the destruction of the kingdom of darkness. It is the end-game for Satan and the conclusion of his evil efforts to obstruct the plan of God for mankind. Wickedness has finally and eternally been abolished.

1 Corinthians 15:22-24 tells us that “all rule and all authority and power” are finally “put down” or katargeésee or abolished at the “Coming” or parousia of the Lord, which is, as we have established, confirmed in the next sentence as “the end.” The kingdom of God is finally and eternally presented “up,” whereas the kingdom of darkness is finally and eternally “put down.” It is this all-consummating last day that ushers in the end (or completion) of all things.

From a careful study of these expressions you will see that what is referred to as “this age/time” has a defined end, whereas the “the age to come” has none. The reason for this is that the termination of “this age” brings an end to time, whereas the ushering in the “the age to come” brings in the eternal.

To inherit the new earth is actually to be qualified to populate it. Only the new creation can inherit the new creation. The new glorified incorrupt earth is not for mortals. It is not for the wicked. It is for the incorupt redeemed. It is for the glorified saints.

The Apostle Paul instructs the believer in 1 Corinthians 1:7-8 to “come behind in no gift; waiting for the coming [Gr. parousia] of our Lord Jesus Christ: Who shall also confirm you unto the end [Gr. telos], that ye may be blameless in the day of our Lord Jesus Christ.”

The coming of the Lord is again associated with “the end.” The end of the age is manifestly the end! In this, we see a glorious promise that Christ shall “confirm” or establish or secure us “unto the end.”

Wayne Grudem interprets this verse, “Here he [Paul] connects the possession of spiritual gifts and their situation in the history of redemption (waiting for Christ's return), suggesting that gifts are given to the church for the period between Christ's ascension and his return” (pg. 1019).

Grudem continues: “Paul saw the gifts as a temporary provision made to equip believers for ministry until the Lord returned” (pg. 1035).

When Christ comes the gifts will be rendered unnecessary. They will be obsolete. We shall then be perfected and will have no need to operate in any gift. Christ will be all-in-all.

In Matthew 24, Jerusalem was on the cusp of experiencing utter destruction, including the removal of their temple (the center of their religious worship). Moreover, that loss would remain in place from its demolition right up until the second coming of the Lord. The disciples asked two questions in Matthew 24 as they stood in front of the still-standing temple complex.

Matthew 24:3 records:

1. “When shall these things be?”
2. “What shall be the sign of thy coming [Gr. parousia], and of the end [Gr. sunteleías or completion, or consummation] of the world [Gr. aion]?”

The word telos, used in 1 Corinthians 1:7-8 and 15:24, is also found in the above passage being coupled to, and prefixed with, the popular Greek word sun (Strong’s 4862) – denoting union and togetherness. The word carries the overall meaning of the entire end.

Christ addressed both questions and both eras in chapter 24. However, because of the intermingling of His response, many Bible students suffer great confusion in identifying what aspect of the teaching relates to AD 70 and what relates to the second coming. Notwithstanding, there is much detail about the days that precede His return.

Premils and Preterists do not believe that “the end” refers to the actual end. The New Testament word from which we get our phrase “the end” is the Greek word telos which refers to the point aimed at as a limit, i.e. the conclusion of an act or state. It refers to the completion. It is the termination point of a thing.

When Scripture simply talks about “the beginning” without any other additional words or contextual reason to identify it with a specific event, then theologians universally agree it is talking about “the beginning” of time/this age/creation. Whilst all sound theologians agree on this, many are inconsistent when it comes to “the end.” The reason probably is because it cuts across a lot of end-time theology they have been taught. However, both should be treated similarly.

Unless Scripture specifically identifies “the end” with a particular event or matter like “the end of barley harvest” (Ruth 2:23) “the end of the sabbath” (Matt 28:1), “the end of the year” (2 Chron 24:23), “the end of the rod” (1 Sam 14:27), or “the end of the commandment” (1 Tim 1:5), etc, etc, then we should understand it as the end of the world (which is the end of the age).

Jesus response to His disciples in Matthew 24:6 and 13-14 is notable: “ye shall hear of wars and rumours of wars: see that ye be not troubled: for all these things must come to pass, but the end [Gr. telos] is not yet ... But he that shall endure unto the end [Gr. telos], the same shall be saved. And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end [Gr. telos] come.”

“The end of the age” is normally described as “the end.” Those that endure to the end are promised a glorious reward. The true child of God will persevere to the end because that is his nature. The false professor will not.

If we are to be consistent, if we are to take a word literally, plainly and straightforwardly in its context, then we should take the word “end” to mean the end. 1 Peter 4:7 predicts “the end of all things is at hand.” This is a pretty substantive, unambiguous and climactic statement. Few, if any, would argue that this was not talking about the second coming. But few stop to consider the enormity and finality of this Coming.

Jesus continues His response to the disciples’ question reference His coming in Matthew 24:35-44: Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away. But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. But as the days of Noe were, so shall also the coming [Gr. parousia] of the Son of man be. For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark, And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming [Gr. parousia] of the Son of man be. Then shall two be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left. Two women shall be grinding at the mill; the one shall be taken, and the other left. Watch therefore: for ye know not what hour your Lord doth come. But know this, that if the goodman of the house had known in what watch the thief would come, he would have watched, and would not have suffered his house to be broken up. Therefore be ye also ready: for in such an hour as ye think not the Son of man cometh.”

The removal of the current heaven and earth is here connected to the coming of the Lord. After telling us that “heaven and earth shall pass away” Jesus immediately tells us: “of that day and hour knoweth no man.” This final day that is approachingis coming unexpectedly. This fits in with the “thief in the night” scenario found elsewhere in Scripture. It would seem to confirm that the day that Christ returns is the day when the current corrupt natural order (both the creature and creation) is gloriously changed. The wicked and all corruption are destroyed when Jesus comes. The Lord here identifies the passing away of “heaven and earth” with “the coming of the Son of man.”

Christ describes this day as an unanticipated day for many – one that will find many unprepared. For those who are playing at religion they will be caught on. They will face the same punishment as the “hypocrite” when He comes: “there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.” The wicked are an all-inclusive group; they include every Christ-rejecter – from the religious professors to the outright profane hypocrites. They will all be caught in the destruction when they are left behind and the “heaven and earth ... pass away.”
 
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Jesus taught in the parable of the wheat and tares (in Matthew 13:24-30), The kingdom of heaven is likened unto a man which sowed good seed in his field. But while men slept, his enemy came and sowed among the wheat, and went his way …Let both grow together until the harvest: and in the time of harvest I will say to the reapers, Gather ye together first the tares, and bind them in bundles to burn them: but gather the wheat into my barn.”

Verses 39-43 continues, the harvest is the end of the world [Gr. aion or age]; and the reapers are the angels. As therefore the tares are gathered and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this world [Gr. aion or age]. The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity; And shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth. Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father.”

Jesus locates “the harvest” of both the wicked and the righteous at “the end of the aion or age.” We see that in this age the good and the bad grow together. But the age to come is not so. It is not open to the wicked. This agrees with the statement of Christ in Luke 20:34-36 which shows that one has to be qualified to inherit the age to come and the new earth: one has to be “accounted worthy to obtain that aion or age. The reason is: it is only for believers. This passage shows that it is in this age that “the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father.” This is talking about the perfect incorruptible glorified state. The wicked on the other hand are “cast … into a furnace of fire” where “there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth.”

Here we see the final separation of the righteous and the wicked including the burning of those who practice lawlessness, and reward of those who belonged to Christ. In this context, “the end of the age” obviously refers to Christ’s glorious second coming. It cannot refer to the destruction of Jerusalem, as Preterists contend, since there was no separation of the righteous from the wicked, nor no final judgment for mankind then.

The same truth is also revealed by Christ in Matthew 13:47-50, in the parable of the net: “the kingdom of heaven is like unto a net, that was cast into the sea, and gathered of every kind: Which, when it was full, they drew to shore, and sat down, and gathered the good into vessels, but cast the bad away. So shall it be at the end of the world [Gr. aion or age]: the angels shall come forth, and sever the wicked from among the just, And shall cast them into the furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth.”

The bringing in of the “net” here relates to the angels gathering the righteous and the wicked together for judgment. This assignment is notably not executed until the net “was full.” We can see here that the wicked and righteous are drawn in at the same time. The Christ-rejecter is judged, sentenced and eternally separated from the elect of God at “the end of the age.” The outcome for the wicked drawn in by God’s great net in this parable is horrendous as they are pictured “wailing (klauthmos) and gnashing of teeth” or as it is rendered in the parable of the talents: “weeping (klauthmos) and gnashing of teeth.” This is the time of final judgment for the rebel against God.

Jesus said in Luke 17:26-30, “as it was in the days of Noe, so shall it be also in the days of the Son of man. They did eat, they drank, they married wives, they were given in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark, and the flood came, and destroyed them all. Likewise also as it was in the days of Lot; they did eat, they drank, they bought, they sold, they planted, they builded; But the same day that Lot went out of Sodom it rained fire and brimstone from heaven, and destroyed them all. Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of man is revealed.”

The plain focus of this teaching in Luke 17 (reference Noah and Lot’s day) is the nature and degree of the judgment that befell the wicked in these two familiar Old Testament stories and especially the extent of that particular wrath. The key element and major emphasis of this discourse is the fact (speaking of the ungodly) that God “destroyed them all.” The comprehensive destruction of the wicked in both of these examples is the important lesson of the narrative; both the whole world of Noah’s day and the whole individual city of Sodom in Lot’s day saw the immediate and complete rescue of the entire righteous coupled together with the immediate and complete destruction of the entire wicked.

Christ plainly and purposefully advanced these two days, where the righteous were graciously rescued just prior to the full annihilation of the wicked, in order to vividly portray the nature and scope of the day of His wrath at the second coming. He deliberates and graphically connected the happenings of both these former days of judgment to the day of His return. Jesus succinctly said, “Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of man is revealed” (Luke 17:30).

After speaking of the “days of Noe” and the “days of Lot,” the Lord then describes a singular “day” when the righteous were rescued and the wicked were destroyed. Whilst the Lord presents the rebellion and debauchery that preceded both of these judgments as a sign of how things will exist prior to the day of His all-consummating appearing, the main focus of His teaching relates to the focus and scale of the wrath which did fall on these two solemn days of destruction and how they accurately reflect what will happen at the second coming. Both individually and jointly, they supply us with a stunning insight into the nature of the actual day that Christ’s returns and to the days that precede His glorious Second Coming. In their substance and importance these two Old Testament days are distinct and unique. And whilst the nature of the judgment and geographical extent of both appreciably varies, brought-together, they graphically represent (1) the type of catastrophe coming, and (2) the scale of the destruction at the end. Scripture nowhere separates in time the gathering of the Lord's people to Himself with the destruction of the wicked.

It is not just that Scripture depicts the second coming as “the end of the age/world” (as many Scriptures state), it is that it labels it as “the last day” or simply “the end.” The Bible shows the resurrection/judgment of the righteous and the resurrection of the wicked to occur on “the last (or final) day” of “the last days” when Jesus comes. Martha had a full awareness of that truth in the New Testament, when speaking of her brother Lazarus to Christ, in John 11:23-24, “Jesus saith unto her, Thy brother shall rise again. Martha saith unto him, I know that he shall rise again in the resurrection at the last day.”

Christ did not rebuke this understanding of the last day. In fact, Christ taught in complete agreement in John 6:39.

Jesus said in John 6:39: “all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.”

Jesus said in John 6:39: “every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.”

Jesus said in John 6:44: “No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.”

Jesus said in John 6:54: Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood (speaking spiritually and figuratively), hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.”

Premils are unable to take Scripture after Scripture literally (and at face value) because it interferes with their false teaching. They must therefore dismiss the "last day" being the "last day" because they have to squeeze thousands of additional days after history's last day. This is blatantly unbiblical. Amils are happy to let the Bible speak for itself.

Whilst, we are plainly in the last days there is an actual day coming which will conclude this scene of time and will see the final operation of God’s judgment upon sin, Satan and the wicked. That individual day is frequently known as “the last day.”

The sum total of God’s elect will be gloriously raised at this concluding final day. The resurrection of the righteous like that of the wicked is therefore for the purpose of judgment and happens on that great last or final day of salvation. That is how Paul could say with all assurance in 2 Timothy 4:8, “there is laid up for me a crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous judge, shall give me at that day: and not to me only, but unto all them also that love his appearing.”

Moreover, this concluding last day is not just a day of resurrection and judgment for the righteous but also for the wicked. This is confirmed by Christ in John 12:48, when He said, “He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day.”

Here the wicked are judged on the same day that the righteous are judged, namely, the “last day” of the “last days.” The term “the last day” is quoted different times in the New Testament without any form (or undoubted requirement) of qualification or any hint that there are two separate last days, as the Premillennialist would try and argue. When Christ or any other person referred to that final day in the New Testament it was always constantly in the context of its all-consummating nature, each time referring to the matter of the resurrection/judgment of both the wicked and the righteous. The references expressly refer to the last day of this age (the Gospel age) – the day that ushers in the new heaven and the new earth. There are absolutely no grounds for believing that the last day refers to a future millennium, and therefore lasts for a literal 1,000 years. Such a suggestion only emanates out of the Premillennialist camp in order to support their flawed view of Revelation 20.

Significantly, in all the above references, the wording in the original for “last day” is always identical – eschatee heemara. The Greek word eschatee used here comes from the root word eschatos, from where we get our word English eschatology, and simply means end, last, farthest or final. Eschatology is therefore the study of, or teaching on, end times or final or last things. It covers the period of redemptive history.

We can therefore safely assume from its meaning that the last day alluded to in these references relates to the end or final day of this age, the day when all the purposes of God for man in this life are finally concluded and judged. It is the last or final day when the old heavens and the old earth will finally pass away and be replaced by a new heaven and a new earth. It is an all-consummating day in which every man will give finally give account for his life.

Nowhere in any of Christ’s statements on the resurrection, the judgment, the last day, and the does He make any allowance for, or the slightest allusion to, a 1000 years gap separating His dealings with, and His judgment of, the sheep and the goats.
 
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sovereigngrace

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Revelation 10:1-3: “And I saw another mighty angel come down from heaven, clothed with a cloud: and a rainbow was upon his head, and his face was as it were the sun, and his feet as pillars of fire: And he had in his hand a little book open: and he set his right foot upon the sea, and his left foot on the earth, And cried with a loud voice, as when a lion roareth: and when he had cried, seven thunders uttered their voices.”

The symbolism and authority surrounding this great heavenly angel proves beyond a doubt that it is none other than the Lord Jesus Christ and a picture of His glorious Second Coming. We will the symbolism shortly.

Revelation 10:5-7 says of the Second Advent and the concluding last trumpet, “And the angel which I saw stand upon the sea and upon the earth lifted up his hand to heaven, and sware by him that liveth for ever and ever, who created heaven, and the things that therein are, and the earth, and the things that therein are, and the sea, and the things which are therein, that there should be time no longer: but in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be finished, as he hath declared to his servants the prophets.”

There is clearly a major dilemma here for you those who take Revelation to be a literal chronological unfolding of last day events. They must surely concede, if they are going to be consistent with their view that everything after Revelation 11 (which also refers to the seventh trumpet) is in the realm of eternity and the after-life. After all Revelation 10 plainly records that with this particular event “there should be time no longer.” For those who would lightly dismiss this important narrative as anything other than a magnificent picture of the Lord Jesus Christ and His glorious second coming, they do foolishly ignore the great wealth of explicit and consistent end-time teaching on this subject and divorce the undoubted harmony of this chapter from the rest of New Testament prophetic teaching.

This is the end of the old temporal sin-cursed order and the introduction of the new eternal glorified order. Also, the undoubted finality surrounding the echo of the seventh trumpet proves beyond doubt that it is the last trump – the final trumpet sound for all mankind. “The kingdoms of this world” have finally “become the kingdoms of our lord, and of his Christ” and “he shall reign” not for 1000 years as some would have us believe but “for ever and ever.” Those who reject such evidence do so (in the main) in order to support the Preterist, Pretribulationist or Historist positions.

The King James Version interprets the passage correctly and in context: chronos ouketi estai – literally meaning: Time – no longer – there shall be’!!!

The whole import and wording of the remainder of the passage perfectly supports the King James Version rendering and confirms the all-consummating nature of the Second Advent, which says, “when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be etelesthee (or) finished.” It should be noted that the word etelesthee is a very strong all-consummating word that is rightly translated ‘finished’ in this reading and is consistently interpreted: completed, concluded, expired and accomplished.

Revelation 11:15: “And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever.”

Verse 18 then reveals how the Second Advent ushers in the general judgment, saying, “And the nations were angry, and thy wrath is come, and the time of the dead, that they should be judged, and that thou shouldest (1) give reward unto thy servants the prophets, and to the saints, and them that fear thy name, small and great; and shouldest (2) destroy them which destroy the earth. And the temple of God was opened in heaven, and there was seen in his temple the ark of his testament: and there were lightnings, and voices, and thunderings, and an earthquake, and great hail.”

This is the end of the old temporal sin-cursed order and the introduction of the new eternal glorified order. Also, the undoubted finality surrounding the echo of the seventh trumpet proves beyond doubt that it is the last trump – the final trumpet sound for all mankind. “The kingdoms of this world” have finally “become the kingdoms of our lord, and of his Christ” and “he shall reign” not for 1000 years as some would have us believe but “for ever and ever.” Those who reject such evidence do so (in the main) in order to support the Pretribulationist doctrine.

At the last trumpet, Christ will “reward” the saints and “destroy” the wicked. It is “the time of the dead, that they should be judged.” One wonders how anyone could not see a general resurrection of the dead here in order to enable a general judgment.
 
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Douggg

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Op Note

The biblical evidence presented here forbids Premils and proves Amil.
All that verbage to deny the plain and simple meaning of the text in Revelation 20 regarding the 1000 year reign of Jesus here on this earth.

There are 7 years that precede Jesus return in Revelation 19.

That 7 years is in Ezekiel 39, which in Ezekiel 39:21-29, Jesus Himself is speaking in the text.

21 And I will set my glory among the heathen, and all the heathen shall see my judgment that I have executed, and my hand that I have laid upon them.

The 7 years follow the destruction of Gog's army and the mass grave in Israel. There is no mass grave of Gog's army in Israel, yet, proving it has not taken place yet.

Amil, partial preterist, covenant theology movement, new covenant theology movement, Judaism, none of these want to acknowledge the reality of Ezekiel 39. Ezekiel was a contemporary of Daniel. While Daniel was receiving divine information about the end times, so was Ezekiel - and both put together provide a definitive picture of the end times timeline of events to soon take place.

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sovereigngrace

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All that verbage to deny the plain and simple meaning of the text in Revelation 20 regarding the 1000 year reign of Jesus here on this earth.

There are 7 years that precede Jesus return in Revelation 19.

That 7 years is in Ezekiel 39, which in Ezekiel 39:21-29, Jesus Himself is speaking in the text.

21 And I will set my glory among the heathen, and all the heathen shall see my judgment that I have executed, and my hand that I have laid upon them.

The 7 years follow the destruction of Gog's army and the mass grave in Israel. There is no mass grave of Gog's army in Israel, yet, proving it has not taken place yet.

Amil, partial preterist, covenant theology movement, new covenant theology movement, Judaism, none of these want to acknowledge the reality of Ezekiel 39. Ezekiel was a contemporary of Daniel. While Daniel was receiving divine information about the end times, so was Ezekiel - and both put together provide a definitive picture of the end times timeline of events to soon take place.

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You totally ignored multiple climactic Scripture that shows there is one final future coming of Christ that ushers in the end. You pluck that ancient fulfilled passage describing an ancient battle pertaining to the OT and apply it to your imaginary future 7 year trib that is unknown to any text in Scripture. Pretrib does not have one single proof-text anywhere that teaches a rapture of the church, followed by a 7 year tribulation, followed by 3rd coming- as your continual avoidance proves.

Where is the Church mentioned in Ezekiel 39?
Where is a rapture of the Church in Ezekiel 39?
Where is a 7 year tribulation mentioned in Ezekiel 39?
Where is a 3rd coming in Ezekiel 39?
Where is a future millennium mentioned in Ezekiel 39?

There are none of the elements your teachers have falsely taught you in Ezekiel 39. The doctrine is non-existent.

Pretrib is the most crudely cobbled togther doctrine ever created by man. It uses the Word to artificially create a false doctrine. It is taught nowhere. It is a grievous invention originated by the Jesuits to bring division and confusion to the Protestant faith.
 
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Douggg

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You totally ignored multiple climactic Scripture that shows there is one final future coming of Christ that ushers in the end. You pluck that ancient fulfilled passage describing an ancient battle pertaining to the OT and apply it to your imaginary future 7 year trib that is unknown to any text in Scripture. Pretrib does not have one single proof-text anywhere that teaches a rapture of the church, followed by a 7 year tribulation, followed by 3rd coming- as your continual avoidance proves.

Where is the Church mentioned in Ezekiel 39?
Where is a rapture of the Church in Ezekiel 39?
Where is a 7 year tribulation mentioned in Ezekiel 39?
Where is a 3rd coming in Ezekiel 39?
Where is a future millennium mentioned in Ezekiel 39?

There are none of the elements your teachers have falsely taught you in Ezekiel 39. The doctrine is non-existent.

Pretrib is the most crudely cobbled togther doctrine ever created by man. It uses the Word to artificially create a false doctrine. It is taught nowhere. It is a grievous invention originated by the Jesuits to bring division and confusion to the Protestant faith.
All of those things have to be fitted within, and prior to, and after, the the infallible framework of the timeline provided by Ezekiel 39.
 
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sovereigngrace

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All of those things have to be fitted within, and prior to, and after, the the infallible framework of the timeline provided by Ezekiel 39.

As per normal, and when pressed, Pretribbers are unable to provide any biblical evidence to support Pretrib. There is nothing in this text that teaches any of the Pretrib tenets. In fact, they have no single proof-text anywhere in Scripture. This is a man-made doctrine.

The reality is:

The transport is ancient – “horses” (Ezekiel 38:4) and “chariots” (Ezekiel 39:20).
The weapons are ancient – “bows and the arrows” (Ezekiel 39:9).
The protection is ancient "bucklers and shields" (Ezekiel 38:4 & 39:9).
The spoil is ancient – “cattle and goods” (Ezekiel 38:13).

In short, I believe this battle has been fulfilled.
 
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Douggg

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As per normal, and when pressed, Pretribbers are unable to provide any biblical evidence to support Pretrib. There is nothing in this text that teaches any of the Pretrib tenets. In fact, they have no single proof-text anywhere in Scripture. This is a man-made doctrine.

The reality is:

The transport is ancient – “horses” (Ezekiel 38:4) and “chariots” (Ezekiel 39:20).
The weapons are ancient – “bows and the arrows” (Ezekiel 39:9).
The protection is ancient "bucklers and shields" (Ezekiel 38:4 & 39:9).
The spoil is ancient – “cattle and goods” (Ezekiel 38:13).

In short, I believe this battle has been fulfilled.
There is no mass grave of Gog's army in Israel, proving Gog/Magog has not take place yet.

The separate issue. I am not a pretribber, as pretribbers maintain that the rapture MUST happen before the 7 year 70th week begins.

I don't hold the MUST position, but the MAY or MAY NOT position.

The issue is not the rapture anyway, but the infallible timeline framwork for the end times event provided by Ezekiel 39 - which Amil, partial preterists, covenant theology movement, new covenant theology movement, Judaism ignore.
 
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sovereigngrace

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There is no mass grave of Gog's army in Israel, proving Gog/Magog has not take place yet.

The separate issue. I am not a pretribber, as pretribbers maintain that the rapture MUST happen before the 7 year 70th week begins.

I don't hold the MUST position, but the MAY or MAY NOT position.

The issue is not the rapture anyway, but the infallible timeline framwork for the end times event provided by Ezekiel 39 - which Amil, partial preterists, covenant theology movement, new covenant theology movement, Judaism ignore.

You are so besotted by this false teaching that you cannot see that it is an ancient battle. Address the numerous contradictions in your theology instead of papering over them.
 
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Douggg

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You are so besotted by this false teaching that you cannot see that it is an ancient battle. Address the numerous contradictions in your theology instead of pampering over them.
Gog/Magog is after Ezekiel's time. Latter days, latter years, Ezekiel 38:8, Ezekiel 38:16.

There is no mass grave site of Gog's army in Israel, proving it hasn't happened.

You are not even reading Ezekiel 39:17-20 as being Revelation 19:17-18.
 
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DavidPT

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As per normal, and when pressed, Pretribbers are unable to provide any biblical evidence to support Pretrib. There is nothing in this text that teaches any of the Pretrib tenets. In fact, they have no single proof-text anywhere in Scripture. This is a man-made doctrine.

The reality is:

The transport is ancient – “horses” (Ezekiel 38:4) and “chariots” (Ezekiel 39:20).
The weapons are ancient – “bows and the arrows” (Ezekiel 39:9).
The protection is ancient "bucklers and shields" (Ezekiel 38:4 & 39:9).
The spoil is ancient – “cattle and goods” (Ezekiel 38:13).

In short, I believe this battle has been fulfilled.


Most already know this, thus most agree, that the last days began with the first coming 2000 years ago. Why might that matter?

Ezekiel 38:16 And thou shalt come up against my people of Israel, as a cloud to cover the land; it shall be in the latter('achariyth) days(yowm), and I will bring thee against my land, that the heathen may know me, when I shall be sanctified in thee, O Gog, before their eyes.

Does not this verse clearly indicate these events occur in the last days? Shouldn't that mean everything recorded in Ezekiel 38-39 is fulfilled sometime post the first coming? How many of those events recorded in both chapters can you prove has already been fulfilled since the first coming?

Are you going to argue that the last days don't begin with the first coming, but are meaning a time before the first coming instead? If the last days already happened prior to the first coming, thus are already fulfilled and past, how then does one explain how we are all still here, and that the 2nd coming hasn't even happened yet? The last days obviously lead to the last day of this age. The last day of this age is yet to happen. It certainly didn't already happen prior to the first coming.


You in particular are a funny one, but not meaning as in comical. You often argue that first means first and last means last, so why doesn't last days simply mean last days? How can there possibly be two sets of last days where one last days has already been fulfilled, and the other last days are still being fulfilled?


Isaiah 2:2 And it shall come to pass in the last('achariyth) days(yowm), that the mountain of the LORD'S house shall be established in the top of the mountains, and shall be exalted above the hills; and all nations shall flow unto it.

Micah 4:1 But in the last('achariyth) days(yowm) it shall come to pass, that the mountain of the house of the LORD shall be established in the top of the mountains, and it shall be exalted above the hills; and people shall flow unto it.


Both of these passages are in the OT as well, and both of these mention the last days. Do you treat these last days the same way you treat the last days mentioned in Ezekiel 38? Do you think the last days mentioned above are also meaning a time prior to the first coming, rather than a time post the first coming?
 
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sovereigngrace

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Most already know this, thus most agree, that the last days began with the first coming 2000 years ago. Why might that matter?

Ezekiel 38:16 And thou shalt come up against my people of Israel, as a cloud to cover the land; it shall be in the latter('achariyth) days(yowm), and I will bring thee against my land, that the heathen may know me, when I shall be sanctified in thee, O Gog, before their eyes.

Does not this verse clearly indicate these events occur in the last days? Shouldn't that mean everything recorded in Ezekiel 38-39 is fulfilled sometime post the first coming? How many of those events recorded in both chapters can you prove has already been fulfilled since the first coming?

Are you going to argue that the last days don't begin with the first coming, but are meaning a time before the first coming instead? If the last days already happened prior to the first coming, thus are already fulfilled and past, how then does one explain how we are all still here, and that the 2nd coming hasn't even happened yet? The last days obviously lead to the last day of this age. The last day of this age is yet to happen. It certainly didn't already happen prior to the first coming.


You in particular are a funny one, but not meaning as in comical. You often argue that first means first and last means last, so why doesn't last days simply mean last days? How can there possibly be two sets of last days where one last days has already been fulfilled, and the other last days are still being fulfilled?


Isaiah 2:2 And it shall come to pass in the last('achariyth) days(yowm), that the mountain of the LORD'S house shall be established in the top of the mountains, and shall be exalted above the hills; and all nations shall flow unto it.

Micah 4:1 But in the last('achariyth) days(yowm) it shall come to pass, that the mountain of the house of the LORD shall be established in the top of the mountains, and it shall be exalted above the hills; and people shall flow unto it.


Both of these passages are in the OT as well, and both of these mention the last days. Do you treat these last days the same way you treat the last days mentioned in Ezekiel 38? Do you think the last days mentioned above are also meaning a time prior to the first coming, rather than a time post the first coming?

First, you totally ignored the Op. Did you even read it?

OT Gog and Magog were a type of the the wicked (Rev 20:8) that will surround true Israel (the Church), before the coming of Christ and the general judgment.

Rev 20:8-15: "And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea. And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them. And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever. And I saw a great white throne, and him that sat on it, from whose face the earth and the heaven fled away; and there was found no place for them. And I saw the dead, small and great, stand before God; and the books were opened: and another book was opened, which is the book of life: and the dead were judged out of those things which were written in the books, according to their works. And the sea gave up the dead which were in it; and death and hell delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged every man according to their works. And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death. And whosoever was not found written in the book of life was cast into the lake of fire."
 
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Most already know this, thus most agree, that the last days began with the first coming 2000 years ago. Why might that matter?

Ezekiel 38:16 And thou shalt come up against my people of Israel, as a cloud to cover the land; it shall be in the latter('achariyth) days(yowm), and I will bring thee against my land, that the heathen may know me, when I shall be sanctified in thee, O Gog, before their eyes.

Does not this verse clearly indicate these events occur in the last days? Shouldn't that mean everything recorded in Ezekiel 38-39 is fulfilled sometime post the first coming? How many of those events recorded in both chapters can you prove has already been fulfilled since the first coming?

Are you going to argue that the last days don't begin with the first coming, but are meaning a time before the first coming instead? If the last days already happened prior to the first coming, thus are already fulfilled and past, how then does one explain how we are all still here, and that the 2nd coming hasn't even happened yet? The last days obviously lead to the last day of this age. The last day of this age is yet to happen. It certainly didn't already happen prior to the first coming.


You in particular are a funny one, but not meaning as in comical. You often argue that first means first and last means last, so why doesn't last days simply mean last days? How can there possibly be two sets of last days where one last days has already been fulfilled, and the other last days are still being fulfilled?


Isaiah 2:2 And it shall come to pass in the last('achariyth) days(yowm), that the mountain of the LORD'S house shall be established in the top of the mountains, and shall be exalted above the hills; and all nations shall flow unto it.

Micah 4:1 But in the last('achariyth) days(yowm) it shall come to pass, that the mountain of the house of the LORD shall be established in the top of the mountains, and it shall be exalted above the hills; and people shall flow unto it.


Both of these passages are in the OT as well, and both of these mention the last days. Do you treat these last days the same way you treat the last days mentioned in Ezekiel 38? Do you think the last days mentioned above are also meaning a time prior to the first coming, rather than a time post the first coming?

What part of my several posts and numerous texts did you actually address?
 
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Spiritual Jew

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All that verbage to deny the plain and simple meaning of the text in Revelation 20 regarding the 1000 year reign of Jesus here on this earth.

There are 7 years that precede Jesus return in Revelation 19.

That 7 years is in Ezekiel 39, which in Ezekiel 39:21-29, Jesus Himself is speaking in the text.

21 And I will set my glory among the heathen, and all the heathen shall see my judgment that I have executed, and my hand that I have laid upon them.

The 7 years follow the destruction of Gog's army and the mass grave in Israel. There is no mass grave of Gog's army in Israel, yet, proving it has not taken place yet.

Amil, partial preterist, covenant theology movement, new covenant theology movement, Judaism, none of these want to acknowledge the reality of Ezekiel 39. Ezekiel was a contemporary of Daniel. While Daniel was receiving divine information about the end times, so was Ezekiel - and both put together provide a definitive picture of the end times timeline of events to soon take place.
You did an impressive job here of not responding to any of the points that he made in his posts. He showed what scripture teaches about what will happen on the last day at the end of this age. Please take the time to address those points and show why you think his interpretations of those passages that talk about the end of the age and the last day are not correct. Otherwise, you can't be taken seriously.
 
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There is no mass grave of Gog's army in Israel, proving Gog/Magog has not take place yet.

The separate issue. I am not a pretribber, as pretribbers maintain that the rapture MUST happen before the 7 year 70th week begins.

I don't hold the MUST position, but the MAY or MAY NOT position.

The issue is not the rapture anyway, but the infallible timeline framwork for the end times event provided by Ezekiel 39 - which Amil, partial preterists, covenant theology movement, new covenant theology movement, Judaism ignore.
This illustrates the weakness of your position. You can't even tell us when you think the rapture will occur in relation to this future 7-year tribulation period that you believe in. How can we take you seriously when that is the case?
 
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Most already know this, thus most agree, that the last days began with the first coming 2000 years ago. Why might that matter?

Ezekiel 38:16 And thou shalt come up against my people of Israel, as a cloud to cover the land; it shall be in the latter('achariyth) days(yowm), and I will bring thee against my land, that the heathen may know me, when I shall be sanctified in thee, O Gog, before their eyes.

Does not this verse clearly indicate these events occur in the last days? Shouldn't that mean everything recorded in Ezekiel 38-39 is fulfilled sometime post the first coming? How many of those events recorded in both chapters can you prove has already been fulfilled since the first coming?

Are you going to argue that the last days don't begin with the first coming, but are meaning a time before the first coming instead? If the last days already happened prior to the first coming, thus are already fulfilled and past, how then does one explain how we are all still here, and that the 2nd coming hasn't even happened yet? The last days obviously lead to the last day of this age. The last day of this age is yet to happen. It certainly didn't already happen prior to the first coming.


You in particular are a funny one, but not meaning as in comical. You often argue that first means first and last means last, so why doesn't last days simply mean last days? How can there possibly be two sets of last days where one last days has already been fulfilled, and the other last days are still being fulfilled?


Isaiah 2:2 And it shall come to pass in the last('achariyth) days(yowm), that the mountain of the LORD'S house shall be established in the top of the mountains, and shall be exalted above the hills; and all nations shall flow unto it.

Micah 4:1 But in the last('achariyth) days(yowm) it shall come to pass, that the mountain of the house of the LORD shall be established in the top of the mountains, and it shall be exalted above the hills; and people shall flow unto it.


Both of these passages are in the OT as well, and both of these mention the last days. Do you treat these last days the same way you treat the last days mentioned in Ezekiel 38? Do you think the last days mentioned above are also meaning a time prior to the first coming, rather than a time post the first coming?
You also did an impressive job of not addressing any of the excellent points made in his posts regarding the end of the age and the last day. If you think he misinterpreted any of the many passages he used to support his view, can you just take one or two of them and show us how they should be interpreted instead? That would be great.
 
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Gog/Magog is after Ezekiel's time. Latter days, latter years, Ezekiel 38:8, Ezekiel 38:16.

There is no mass grave site of Gog's army in Israel, proving it hasn't happened.

You are not even reading Ezekiel 39:17-20 as being Revelation 19:17-18.
Do you take all of Ezekiel 38 and 39 literally? If so, then please explain how there can be a future battle involving the use of ancient weapons between people riding horses. I'm pretty sure the tactics of war have moved beyond that at this point.
 
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You did an impressive job here of not responding to any of the points that he made in his posts. He showed what scripture teaches about what will happen on the last day at the end of this age. Please take the time to address those points and show why you think his interpretations of those passages that talk about the end of the age and the last day are not correct. Otherwise, you can't be taken seriously.

This is where the millennial discussion has arrived after 20 years. Amils have typically taken every issue head on, whether easy or difficult, and tried to reconcile it with the consistent teaching of the inspired text. Premil repeatedly takes a text out of context and make it a pretext. Because of this, they have no consistent hermeneutics. There is no cohesive flow with Premil because it is forced and disjointed.

This thread is another example of a major subject that remains unaddressed. That is because it is water tight. We are letting the Scriptures speak for themselves, not imposing our view upon them.

Diva is a case in point. His theories have been rebutted so many times that he quickly abandons a thread when his beliefs are challenged in any notable way. Alternatively, he side-tracks the overall debate into irrelevancies like the OSAS/NOSAS debate.
 
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