Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
These two scriptures, taken together, do indeed show there is a different standard for the divorced husband and wife on the matter of remarriage.
You're incorrect, the standard is the same.
It was assumed that the divorced wife would get remarried. It was a cultural thing, and I'll leave it to you to study the culture of that time if you don't already know that. So with that in mind, look at 5:32
Jesus is actually pretty clear, so I'm surprised there is so much debate around this. He is saying that when the woman gets remarried, if the reason for the divorce from the previous spouse was
not adultery, then she is committing adultery. This directly implies that if the reason for the divorce
was adultery, that she would not be committing adultery when she gets remarried.
Likewise, look at 19:9. Jesus says that if a man divorces his wife and remarries, that if the reason for the divorce from his first spouse was not adultery, he is committing adultery.
Same standard, same rules, same outcome for both spouses. And here's why:
Marriage was the very first covenant instituted by God, it even preceded the law. Marriage between a man and a woman is the most intimate, deep, relational experience that two people can have this side of heaven. The marriage covenant between two Christians is bound together by the Holy Spirit.
With that basic foundation, it's easy to understand. Only physical adultery is capable of severing the one flesh covenant that is formed by marriage. Jesus is clear, if adultery is not the cause of the separation, adultery is the result of remarriage (for either husband or wife).
Why is adultery the outcome? Simple, because while they may get a divorce on paper, if the divorce was not due to adultery, then they are still married in the eyes of the Lord. A single woman does not commit adultery when marrying a single man.
However, if adultery was the reason for the divorce, then because adultery is the one action that can sever the one flesh covenant - adultery does not occur at remarriage.
It's not actually that complicated.
The title of this thread is "Should a Christian man marry a divorced woman?" The scriptural answer is no, if he does then he commits adultery.
Again incorrect. The exception clause exists for the explicit reason to permit remarriage without adultery being the result. Also, you ignore Paul's teaching in I Corinthians where he permits remarriage in the instance where a non-believing spouse divorces a believing spouse.