Continuation of my response to claninja started in the previous post.
In light of the understanding of the binding of Satan that I posted in my previous post, I believe the following passages refer to it as well:
Hebrews 2:14 Since the children have flesh and blood, he too shared in their humanity so that
by his death he might break the power of him who holds the power of death—that is, the devil— 15 and free those who all their lives were held in slavery by their fear of death.
1 John 3:8 8 The one who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning.
The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil’s work.
Another thing I will add is that I believe we can see what Satan is bound from doing by looking at what he will do when he is loosed:
Rev 20:7 When the thousand years are over, Satan will be released from his prison 8 and will go out to deceive the nations in the four corners of the earth—Gog and Magog—and to gather them for battle. In number they are like the sand on the seashore. 9 They marched across the breadth of the earth and surrounded the camp of God’s people, the city he loves. But fire came down from heaven and devoured them.
He is currently bound from doing what is described in the passage above. Would you agree? The hard part is determining what that means exactly, but I think the explanation above does a good job of that.
The final thing I will add is that I believe 2 Thessalonians 2 describes the time period that he is bound and what will happen to indicate that he has been loosed. I won't quote it here to save a little space. But, it speaks of wickedness/iniquity occurring already back then (verse 7), but being restrained to an extent. But, it indicates that it will not be restrained any longer at some point in the future (which could have already started for all I know) as evidenced by a falling away from the faith (mass rebellion - verse 2) and overall increase in wickedness.
I believe the millennium is symbolic for 2 things: The FIRST Resurrection, which I believe to be Christ, and for the binding of Satan, which I believe occurred at Christ's 1st advent. Both of which were fulfilled at the 1st advent, would you disagree?
No, I would not disagree.
It is upon fulfillment of the FIRST resurrection and binding of Satan, that he was cast out, and coming in order to persecute, deceive, hinder, and prowl. Such is consistent with the gospel/epistolic narrative. Would you disagree?
Yes, I would disagree if you mean by "cast out" that he was loosed at that time. I refer you to the explanation above of how I understand his binding and being loosed.
a.)
John 14:30 I will not speak with you much longer, for the prince of this world is coming, and he has no claim on Me
b.)
Ephesians 2:1 And you were dead in your trespasses and sins, in which you used to walk when you conformed to the ways of this world and of the ruler of the power of the air, the spirit who is now at work in the sons of disobedience.
c.)
2 Corinthians 11:14-15 And no wonder, for even Satan disguises himself as an angel of light. So it is no surprise if his servants, also, disguise themselves as servants of righteousness. Their end will correspond to their deeds.
d.)
1 thessalonians 2:16-18 by hindering us from speaking to the Gentiles that they might be saved—so as always to fill up the measure of their sins. But wrath has come upon them at last!
But since we were torn away from you, brothers, for a short time, in person not in heart, we endeavored the more eagerly and with great desire to see you face to face, because we wanted to come to you—I, Paul, again and again—but Satan hindered us.
e.)
Revelation 2:13 “‘I know where you dwell, where Satan’s throne is. Yet you hold fast my name, and you did not deny my faith even in the days of Antipas my faithful witness, who was killed among you, where Satan dwells.
f.)
1 John 2:18-19 Children, it is the last hour, and as you have heard that antichrist is coming, so now many antichrists have come. Therefore we know that it is the last hour. They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would have continued with us. But they went out, that it might become plain that they all are not of us
g.)
1 peter 5:8 Be sober-minded and alert. Your adversary the devil prowls around like a roaring lion, seeking someone to devour
These passages prove that Satan has been active since the first coming (or since Christ's ascension to be more precise). But, in my view, they do not prove that he was loosed back then. As I pointed out before, I don't believe his binding has to do with him being completely unable to do anything as if he was physically tied down but rather that he is bound with a very long leash (chain) that does not prevent him from doing anything at all, but rather prevents him from doing certain things, namely keeping the Gentiles (nations) from having the light of the gospel and God's word from shining on them.
My position on what the "binding" means, as stated in post 1060:
1.) I definitely believe Satan was bound at Christ's 1st advent, otherwise, Jesus would not have been casting out demons.
Matthew 12:22-29 And if I drive out demons by Beelzebul, by whom do your sons drive them out? So then, they will be your judges. But if I drive out demons by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God has come upon you. Or again, how can anyone enter a strong man’s house and steal his possessions, unless
he first binds the strong man? Then he can plunder his house.
2.) Jesus destroyed the works of the devil at his 1st advent. I relate this to the binding
Hebrews 2:14-15 Since therefore the children share in flesh and blood, he himself likewise partook of the same things, that through death he might destroy the one who has the power of death, that is, the devil, and deliver all those who through fear of death were subject to lifelong slavery
1 John 3:8 Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the works of the devil
3.) Through Christ, the righteous standards of God are met in us. I relate this to the binding.
Romans 8:3-4 For what the law was powerless to do in that it was weakened by the flesh, God did by sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful man, as an offering for sin.
c He thus condemned sin in the flesh, so that the righteous standard of the law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.
4) And because of Christ's death, resurrection, and ascension to the Father, Satan, the accuser, was cast out. I relate this to the binding.
John 12:31-32 Now judgment is upon this world; now the prince of this world will be cast out. And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw everyone to Myself.” He said this to indicate the kind of death He was going to die.
5.) Therefore, Satan can no longer accuse us because the righteous requirements of God are now met in us through Christ. I relate this to the binding.
Romans 8:33-34 Who will bring any charge against God’s elect? It is God who justifies. Who is there to condemn us? For Christ Jesus, who died, and more than that was raised to life, is at the right hand of God—and He is interceding for us.
Revelation 12:10 For the accuser of our brothers has been thrown down—he who accuses them day and night before our God. They have conquered him by the blood of the Lamb and by the word of their testimony. And they did not love their lives so as to shy away from death.
I agree with all of that. These show he was bound long ago. But, what confuses me about your view is that you apparently think his binding only lasted a very short time. Also, I thought you indicated that you believe the thousand years is literal and began in David's time? But, doesn't his binding occur at the beginning of the thousand years? Please clarify this.
In revelation 12:12, the greek word for short is oligos. It literally means "small", "slight", "little". It cannot refer to "any length of time" as you seem to be arguing, nor have I found any examples where it can refer to any length of time.
First of all, the word is not always used in relation to time. Here's one example:
Matt 22:14 For many are invited (called), but
few (Greek: oligos) are chosen.
Now, is this saying that a literal small number of people are chosen? No, right? We know at least millions of people have been chosen. It's used in the sense of there being relatively few or a limited number of people being chosen. This shows that the word can be used to refer to a relatively small or limited number rather than a literally small number. I see no reason to think that can't be the case when it's used in relation to time.
Here is a verse where it is used in relation to time:
James 4:14 Why, you do not even know what will happen tomorrow. What is your life? You are a mist that appears for
a little while (oligos) and then vanishes.
There can be a sense where you could see the human life span as being a literally small amount of time, but I don't believe that's what James was saying here. People used to live up to over 900 years and in modern times up to 120 years or so. I believe the point James is making is that our time is limited (our life spans vary, but we all die, so we all have limited life spans).
Here is another verse where the word is used:
Acts 14:26 From Attalia they sailed back to Antioch, where they had been committed to the grace of God for the work they had now completed. 27 On arriving there, they gathered the church together and reported all that God had done through them and how he had opened a door of faith to the Gentiles. 28 And they stayed there
a long (oligos) time with the disciples.
Here, the word is translated as "long" in relation to time rather than "short"! And, again, I believe it's referring to an undefined and limited amount of time without giving any indication of the actual duration being literally short or long.
I believe the that the parousia of Christ is a reference to the coming of judgment of Christ in 66-70ad on apostate Israel. This does not preclude a future coming. Such is consistent with partial preterism, as stated in the forum rules.
I take this as you saying that you allow for the possibility of a future bodily coming but you don't currently believe that will happen. Is that correct? If you're not allowed to answer that because of forum rules, I understand.
I believe in a future bodily resurrection and judgment. As I type this, I am not in my future resurrected body, nor have I stood before the judgment seat of Christ to receive a reward for my works done in the body, whether good or bad. Such is consistent with partial preterism.
Great. I'm glad you believe that those things will occur in the future.
