Is the Day of the Lord exactly 1000 years as Premils claim?

sovereigngrace

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Jesus claims he did not know. How can I know when it starts? You cannot even define a tribulation. How would you know pre, mid, or post? I know no one survives. That is why there is a bodily resurrection in Revelation 20 before the 1000 years happens. We know there is a definite 42 months before total destruction is complete. Do you not accept any of the Trumpets, Thunders, and possibly vials? If the vials are not poured out, then the 42 months did not happen. If you think all is over in 60 minutes, you deny many Scriptures, that you declare meaningless.

It is like predicting the Revolutionary War in 1500 and stating it will only take 60 minutes, who cares about the details.

More avoidance. Answer the question. You don't have one scripture that teaches a 7-year trib. That is a man-made invention. The church has always been in trib. Check history.
 
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Timtofly

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More avoidance. Answer the question. You don't have one scripture that teaches a 7-year trib. That is a man-made invention. The church has always been in trib. Check history.
Really? The Second Coming is the thief in the night moment. You really want me to tell you when God is going to send Jesus Christ, when Jesus Christ said he did not know. Are you going to accuse Jesus of avoidance? I guess you place me in good company. Peter avoided the Question. Paul avoided the Question. Only a fool sets the date of the Second Coming.
 
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sovereigngrace

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Really? The Second Coming is the thief in the night moment. You really want me to tell you when God is going to send Jesus Christ, when Jesus Christ said he did not know. Are you going to accuse Jesus of avoidance? I guess you place me in good company. Peter avoided the Question. Paul avoided the Question. Only a fool sets the date of the Second Coming.

What has that to do with a climactic return of Christ? Repeated Scripture has been presented to you which proves a climactic coming of Jesus but you have rejected each one of them. They show this advent be the end.
 
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Timtofly

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What has that to do with a climactic return of Christ? Repeated Scripture has been presented to you which proves a climactic coming of Jesus but you have rejected each one of them. They show this advent be the end.
Climactic is not found once in Scripture. That is a private interpretation. About as dramatic as the left behind series. One extreme does not make the other extreme any less of a private interpretation. They both are wrong. You have the Second Coming at the wrong spot in a timeline that you claim does not exist. That is climactic logic.
 
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sovereigngrace

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Climactic is not found once in Scripture. That is a private interpretation. About as dramatic as the left behind series. One extreme does not make the other extreme any less of a private interpretation. They both are wrong. You have the Second Coming at the wrong spot in a timeline that you claim does not exist. That is climactic logic.

It is called in Scripture "the end." This occurs at the second coming. There is nothing more climactic than that.
 
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parousia70

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Really? The Second Coming is the thief in the night moment.

Why did Jesus promise that Thief of the Night moment would befall First century peoples? (Revelation 3:3)

Was He lying or just mistaken?
 
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Timtofly

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It is..
That’s why it never ceases to amaze me when Christians claim it didn’t happen to them back then.
I did not live back then. You are relying on historical accounts, anyways. I find it interesting that those who wrote the history, or those who passed the history down, never confirmed that all was fullfilled. They kept going on in "heresy" (according to you) themselves. We do not use that term these days. But historically any one preaching or teaching outside of God's Word were heretics. Or at least heretics against what the church accepted. You would think something that important would not have gone out of style over the years. I mean infant baptism is more important than The Second Coming and fulfillment of all prophecy????


Even in Paul’s day many claimed it had happened and Paul told them they were wrong. Why did Paul end up in the NT and not those who claimed it was "all over"? God should have used their teachings instead of Paul’s, no?
 
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parousia70

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I did not live back then. You are relying on historical accounts, anyways.
No, I'm relying on the surety of God's Promises. I don't require the corroboration of Fallible men from History to affirm my sure and certain Knowledge that when God Promises to do something, He does it.

I find it interesting that those who wrote the history, or those who passed the history down, never confirmed that all was fullfilled.

The ECF's never had a unified eschatology, but the bulk of them Held that Matthew 24 was fulfilled in the first century. How could they have been so wrong about that?

They kept going on in "heresy" (according to you) themselves.

Can you Link to any statement of mine that indicates the ECF's un-unified eschatological musings constituted Hersey in my view?

Even in Paul’s day many claimed it had happened and Paul told them they were wrong. Why did Paul end up in the NT and not those who claimed it was "all over"?

What precisely is the error of Hymenaeus that Paul is rebuking?

What damning, faith-destroying error did Paul continuously have to address in his epistles? The answer links right up to the error of Hymenaeus:

Galatians 3:1-2,10
You foolish Galatians, who has bewitched you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed as crucified? This is the only thing I want to find out from you: did you receive the Spirit by the works of the Law, or by hearing with faith?...as many as are of the works of the Law are under a curse

Galatians 2:16,21
Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the Law but through faith in Christ Jesus, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the Law; since by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified....I do not nullify the grace of God, for if righteousness comes through the Law, then Christ died needlessly

Galatians 5:2-4
Behold I, Paul, say to you that if you receive circumcision, Christ will be of no benefit to you. And I testify again to every man who receives circumcision, that he is under obligation to keep the whole Law. You have been severed from Christ, you who are seeking to be justified by law; you have fallen from grace.

I could post a dozen other Pauline verses that repeat what was damming everyone in that generation, but those suffice. The belief that justification/salvation came from the Law Covenant of Moses was the damning, faith-destroying error Paul continuously had to address in his epistles.

It was for this same error that Hymenaeus was also being condemned by Paul, for Hymenaeus claimed that the release of the OT dead from Hades occurred within the Mosaic Covenant era. Hymenaeus was thus boldly claiming that the OT dead were saved through the Law Covenant of Moses. Hymenaeus was teaching salvation by the works of the Mosaic Law. He thus was "bewitched," "under a curse," had "fallen from grace," and was, in essence, saying "Christ died needlessly."
 
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sovereigngrace

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No, I'm relying on the surety of God's Promises. I don't require the corroboration of Fallible men from History to affirm my sure and certain Knowledge that when God Promises to do something, He does it.



The ECF's never had a unified eschatology, but the bulk of them Held that Matthew 24 was fulfilled in the first century. How could they have been so wrong about that?



Can you Link to any statement of mine that indicates the ECF's un-unified eschatological musings constituted Hersey in my view?



What precisely is the error of Hymenaeus that Paul is rebuking?

What damning, faith-destroying error did Paul continuously have to address in his epistles? The answer links right up to the error of Hymenaeus:

Galatians 3:1-2,10
You foolish Galatians, who has bewitched you, before whose eyes Jesus Christ was publicly portrayed as crucified? This is the only thing I want to find out from you: did you receive the Spirit by the works of the Law, or by hearing with faith?...as many as are of the works of the Law are under a curse

Galatians 2:16,21
Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the Law but through faith in Christ Jesus, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the Law; since by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified....I do not nullify the grace of God, for if righteousness comes through the Law, then Christ died needlessly

Galatians 5:2-4
Behold I, Paul, say to you that if you receive circumcision, Christ will be of no benefit to you. And I testify again to every man who receives circumcision, that he is under obligation to keep the whole Law. You have been severed from Christ, you who are seeking to be justified by law; you have fallen from grace.

I could post a dozen other Pauline verses that repeat what was damming everyone in that generation, but those suffice. The belief that justification/salvation came from the Law Covenant of Moses was the damning, faith-destroying error Paul continuously had to address in his epistles.

It was for this same error that Hymenaeus was also being condemned by Paul, for Hymenaeus claimed that the release of the OT dead from Hades occurred within the Mosaic Covenant era. Hymenaeus was thus boldly claiming that the OT dead were saved through the Law Covenant of Moses. Hymenaeus was teaching salvation by the works of the Mosaic Law. He thus was "bewitched," "under a curse," had "fallen from grace," and was, in essence, saying "Christ died needlessly."

Really. None of the ECFS supported Full Preterism.
 
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parousia70

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Really. None of the ECFS supported Full Preterism.
Maybe no individual ECF held that ALL Eschatology was fulfilled in 70AD However, when we accumulate all the individual prophesies that any given ECF on their own DID believe to be fulfilled in 70AD, and put them together, we arrive very near a consistent preterist position, even if they were personally inconsistent on their application thereof.

For certain, the greatest number of the earliest Christians believed that a number of, if not all, prophecies of the Olivet Discourse were fulfilled in the first century destruction of Jerusalem. The challenge, in fact, is to find even one early Christian that didn't teach the Preterist interpretation of Matthew 24. The earliest and most significant writers were in unanimous agreement, proclaiming the fulfillment of these prophecies in the time of the AD70 destruction of the Jewish city, temple and nation.

Here's a snippet:

Origen - Against Celsus | John | Matthew "I challenge anyone to prove my statement untrue if I say that the entire Jewish nation was destroyed less than one whole generation later on account of these sufferings which they inflicted on Jesus. For it was, I believe, forty-two years from the time when they crucified Jesus to the destruction of Jerusalem."

Chrysostom - Homilies on Matthew 24 "Was their house left desolate? Did all the vengeance come upon that generation? It is quite plain that it was so, and no man gainsays it."

Chrysostom - St. Chrysostom's Liturgy "Having in remembrance, therefore, this saving commandment and all those things which have come to pass for us: the Cross, the Grave, the Resurrection on the third day, the Ascension into heaven, the Sitting at the right hand, and the second and glorious Coming"

The ECFs recognized:

(1) that the great tribulation is past, transpiring at AD 66-70
(2) that AD 70 involved a coming of Jesus Christ in judgment

So, while they did not establish a biblically consistent preterism, they were far more preteristic in their understanding of eschatology than most modern futurists. The fact is that the ECFs had their hands full with formulating a consistent Christology (the nature of Christ and the Trinity), and didn't spend as much time formulating an orthodox, systematic eschatology. We know that the ECFs had mostly assigned Matthew 24 to the past, and the Protestant Reformers had a majority view that all Matthew 24 was fulfilled in the first century.

Classical preterism (i.e. The Catholic Preterism of the likes of James Aiken, Scott Hahn, St Cryssostom, St Thomas Aquinas, Eusebius, etc...) sees AD 70 as a temporal judgment of God/Christ that is not pertaining to the final advent, except as a general prefiguring of it.

As well as the reformed Thinkers such as C.H Spurgeon
I agree with these respected thinkers on this topic.

C.H. Spurgeon (NOT a Full Preterist) On New Heavens and Earth (1865)
"Did you ever regret the absence of the burnt-offering, or the red heifer, of any one of the sacrifices and rites of the Jews? Did you ever pine for the feast of tabernacle, or the dedication? No, because, though these were like the old heavens and earth to the Jewish believers, they have passed away, and we now live under the new heavens and a new earth, so far as the dispensation of divine teaching is concerned. The substance is come, and the shadow has gone: and we do not remember it." (Metropolitan Tabernacle Pulpit, vol. xxxvii, p. 354).

St. Thomas Aquinas, St. Augustine, St. Eusebius all understood this basic principle of bible eschatology, and we really ought to take their words to heart.

As St. Thomas Aquinas taught:
The signs of which we read in the gospels, as Augustine says, writing to Hesychius about the end of the world, refer not only to Christ's [future] coming to judgment, but also to the time of the sack of Jerusalem, and to the coming of Christ in ceaselessly visiting His Church. So that, perhaps, if we consider them carefully, we shall find that none of them refers to the coming advent, as he remarks: because these signs that are mentioned in the gospels, such as wars, fears, and so forth, have been from the beginning of the human race (Thomas Aquinas; Summa Theologica, Supplement Question 73, Article 1)

And even St. Gregory, Bishop of Nyssa (AD 336-395)
"Do we romance about three Resurrections? Do we promise the gluttony of the Millennium? Do we declare that the Jewish animal-sacrifices shall be restored? Do we lower men's hopes again to the Jerusalem below, imagining its rebuilding with stones of a more brilliant material? What charge like these can be brought against us, that our company should be reckoned a thing to be avoided?"
 
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sovereigngrace

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Maybe no individual ECF held that ALL Eschatology was fulfilled in 70AD However, when we accumulate all the individual prophesies that any given ECF on their own DID believe to be fulfilled in 70AD, and put them together, we arrive very near a consistent preterist position, even if they were personally inconsistent on their application thereof.

For certain, the greatest number of the earliest Christians believed that a number of, if not all, prophecies of the Olivet Discourse were fulfilled in the first century destruction of Jerusalem. The challenge, in fact, is to find even one early Christian that didn't teach the Preterist interpretation of Matthew 24. The earliest and most significant writers were in unanimous agreement, proclaiming the fulfillment of these prophecies in the time of the AD70 destruction of the Jewish city, temple and nation.

Here's a snippet:

Origen - Against Celsus | John | Matthew "I challenge anyone to prove my statement untrue if I say that the entire Jewish nation was destroyed less than one whole generation later on account of these sufferings which they inflicted on Jesus. For it was, I believe, forty-two years from the time when they crucified Jesus to the destruction of Jerusalem."

Chrysostom - Homilies on Matthew 24 "Was their house left desolate? Did all the vengeance come upon that generation? It is quite plain that it was so, and no man gainsays it."

Chrysostom - St. Chrysostom's Liturgy "Having in remembrance, therefore, this saving commandment and all those things which have come to pass for us: the Cross, the Grave, the Resurrection on the third day, the Ascension into heaven, the Sitting at the right hand, and the second and glorious Coming"

The ECFs recognized:

(1) that the great tribulation is past, transpiring at AD 66-70
(2) that AD 70 involved a coming of Jesus Christ in judgment

So, while they did not establish a biblically consistent preterism, they were far more preteristic in their understanding of eschatology than most modern futurists. The fact is that the ECFs had their hands full with formulating a consistent Christology (the nature of Christ and the Trinity), and didn't spend as much time formulating an orthodox, systematic eschatology. We know that the ECFs had mostly assigned Matthew 24 to the past, and the Protestant Reformers had a majority view that all Matthew 24 was fulfilled in the first century.

Classical preterism (i.e. The Catholic Preterism of the likes of James Aiken, Scott Hahn, St Cryssostom, St Thomas Aquinas, Eusebius, etc...) sees AD 70 as a temporal judgment of God/Christ that is not pertaining to the final advent, except as a general prefiguring of it.

As well as the reformed Thinkers such as C.H Spurgeon
I agree with these respected thinkers on this topic.

C.H. Spurgeon (NOT a Full Preterist) On New Heavens and Earth (1865)
"Did you ever regret the absence of the burnt-offering, or the red heifer, of any one of the sacrifices and rites of the Jews? Did you ever pine for the feast of tabernacle, or the dedication? No, because, though these were like the old heavens and earth to the Jewish believers, they have passed away, and we now live under the new heavens and a new earth, so far as the dispensation of divine teaching is concerned. The substance is come, and the shadow has gone: and we do not remember it." (Metropolitan Tabernacle Pulpit, vol. xxxvii, p. 354).

St. Thomas Aquinas, St. Augustine, St. Eusebius all understood this basic principle of bible eschatology, and we really ought to take their words to heart.

As St. Thomas Aquinas taught:
The signs of which we read in the gospels, as Augustine says, writing to Hesychius about the end of the world, refer not only to Christ's [future] coming to judgment, but also to the time of the sack of Jerusalem, and to the coming of Christ in ceaselessly visiting His Church. So that, perhaps, if we consider them carefully, we shall find that none of them refers to the coming advent, as he remarks: because these signs that are mentioned in the gospels, such as wars, fears, and so forth, have been from the beginning of the human race (Thomas Aquinas; Summa Theologica, Supplement Question 73, Article 1)

And even St. Gregory, Bishop of Nyssa (AD 336-395)
"Do we romance about three Resurrections? Do we promise the gluttony of the Millennium? Do we declare that the Jewish animal-sacrifices shall be restored? Do we lower men's hopes again to the Jerusalem below, imagining its rebuilding with stones of a more brilliant material? What charge like these can be brought against us, that our company should be reckoned a thing to be avoided?"

You are being misleading. Historists, Idealists and Partial Preterists believe Christ is the final sacrifice for sin. They believe the abomination of desolation was historic. They also believe Daniel 9 is long fulfilled with the early ministry of Christ. But they do not believe what you and your Full Preterist friends believe that all Matthew 24 is fulfilled, there is no literal physical visible future resurrection of mankind, that the second coming has occurred, and we are now in the age to come and the NHNE. This is heresy. This is banned on this site.
 
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sovereigngrace

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Maybe no individual ECF held that ALL Eschatology was fulfilled in 70AD However, when we accumulate all the individual prophesies that any given ECF on their own DID believe to be fulfilled in 70AD, and put them together, we arrive very near a consistent preterist position, even if they were personally inconsistent on their application thereof.

For certain, the greatest number of the earliest Christians believed that a number of, if not all, prophecies of the Olivet Discourse were fulfilled in the first century destruction of Jerusalem. The challenge, in fact, is to find even one early Christian that didn't teach the Preterist interpretation of Matthew 24. The earliest and most significant writers were in unanimous agreement, proclaiming the fulfillment of these prophecies in the time of the AD70 destruction of the Jewish city, temple and nation.

Here's a snippet:

Origen - Against Celsus | John | Matthew "I challenge anyone to prove my statement untrue if I say that the entire Jewish nation was destroyed less than one whole generation later on account of these sufferings which they inflicted on Jesus. For it was, I believe, forty-two years from the time when they crucified Jesus to the destruction of Jerusalem."

Chrysostom - Homilies on Matthew 24 "Was their house left desolate? Did all the vengeance come upon that generation? It is quite plain that it was so, and no man gainsays it."

Chrysostom - St. Chrysostom's Liturgy "Having in remembrance, therefore, this saving commandment and all those things which have come to pass for us: the Cross, the Grave, the Resurrection on the third day, the Ascension into heaven, the Sitting at the right hand, and the second and glorious Coming"

The ECFs recognized:

(1) that the great tribulation is past, transpiring at AD 66-70
(2) that AD 70 involved a coming of Jesus Christ in judgment

So, while they did not establish a biblically consistent preterism, they were far more preteristic in their understanding of eschatology than most modern futurists. The fact is that the ECFs had their hands full with formulating a consistent Christology (the nature of Christ and the Trinity), and didn't spend as much time formulating an orthodox, systematic eschatology. We know that the ECFs had mostly assigned Matthew 24 to the past, and the Protestant Reformers had a majority view that all Matthew 24 was fulfilled in the first century.

Classical preterism (i.e. The Catholic Preterism of the likes of James Aiken, Scott Hahn, St Cryssostom, St Thomas Aquinas, Eusebius, etc...) sees AD 70 as a temporal judgment of God/Christ that is not pertaining to the final advent, except as a general prefiguring of it.

As well as the reformed Thinkers such as C.H Spurgeon
I agree with these respected thinkers on this topic.

C.H. Spurgeon (NOT a Full Preterist) On New Heavens and Earth (1865)
"Did you ever regret the absence of the burnt-offering, or the red heifer, of any one of the sacrifices and rites of the Jews? Did you ever pine for the feast of tabernacle, or the dedication? No, because, though these were like the old heavens and earth to the Jewish believers, they have passed away, and we now live under the new heavens and a new earth, so far as the dispensation of divine teaching is concerned. The substance is come, and the shadow has gone: and we do not remember it." (Metropolitan Tabernacle Pulpit, vol. xxxvii, p. 354).

St. Thomas Aquinas, St. Augustine, St. Eusebius all understood this basic principle of bible eschatology, and we really ought to take their words to heart.

As St. Thomas Aquinas taught:
The signs of which we read in the gospels, as Augustine says, writing to Hesychius about the end of the world, refer not only to Christ's [future] coming to judgment, but also to the time of the sack of Jerusalem, and to the coming of Christ in ceaselessly visiting His Church. So that, perhaps, if we consider them carefully, we shall find that none of them refers to the coming advent, as he remarks: because these signs that are mentioned in the gospels, such as wars, fears, and so forth, have been from the beginning of the human race (Thomas Aquinas; Summa Theologica, Supplement Question 73, Article 1)

And even St. Gregory, Bishop of Nyssa (AD 336-395)
"Do we romance about three Resurrections? Do we promise the gluttony of the Millennium? Do we declare that the Jewish animal-sacrifices shall be restored? Do we lower men's hopes again to the Jerusalem below, imagining its rebuilding with stones of a more brilliant material? What charge like these can be brought against us, that our company should be reckoned a thing to be avoided?"

It is deeply deceitful to claim Spurgeon to support your error.

This is what Spurgeon wrote on Revelation 21:3-4. And I heard a great voice out of heaven saying, Behold, the tabernacle of God is with men, and he will dwell with them, and they shall be his people, and God himself shall be with them, and be their God. And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away.

"When there shall be a new heaven and a new earth, and the Church shall be in her new and glorified condition, then there will be no need for all those purifying forces which have been so active here below. There shall be no death, nor sorrow nor crying, nor pain, nor trial of any kind; all shall be happiness for all shall be holiness. And then, as God dwelt of old among his people in the wilderness, and as Jesus Christ, the Word, was made flesh, and tabernacled among us, and we beheld his glory, so in that new world shall God reveal himself to his people by a special indwelling and a peculiar nearness."
 
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Timtofly

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The ECF's never had a unified eschatology, but the bulk of them Held that Matthew 24 was fulfilled in the first century. How could they have been so wrong about that?
Because they did not even have a codified Matthew until the 2nd century. What people read would have already been fulfilled by the time it had already happened. Those guessing about history would just be word of mouth anyway. How many ECF quote Josephus and other pagan historians as authority on church history? Something that important would have been included as having been completed with no further speculation in God's Word.
 
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iamlamad

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More avoidance. Answer the question. You don't have one scripture that teaches a 7-year trib. That is a man-made invention. The church has always been in trib. Check history.
Dan. 9:27
Quit telling untruths.
 
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parousia70

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Historists, Idealists and Partial Preterists believe Christ is the final sacrifice for sin. They believe the abomination of desolation was historic. They also believe Daniel 9 is long fulfilled with the early ministry of Christ.
Yes, we do.
But they do not believe what you and your Full Preterist friends believe that all Matthew 24 is fulfilled, there is no literal physical visible future resurrection of mankind, that the second coming has occurred, and we are now in the age to come and the NHNE. This is heresy. This is banned on this site.
Feel free to find any post of mine that purports to advocate what you claim and report it then.
Take all the time you need.
 
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Because they did not even have a codified Matthew until the 2nd century.

Is a codified Matthew necessary for the Christian to read, and understand correctly to be Saved?
If so, How on earth were 2 centuries of Christians Saved without having a codified Matthew that taught the whole truth? Were they Lost and without Hope of Salvation then?
 
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