DavidPT
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- Sep 26, 2016
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Notice in this passage, "must reign" is present tense. Jesus was presently reigning from the heavens in the 1st century, according to Paul.
I fully agree that He is already reigning before He bodily returns in the end of this age. He simply continues reigning until the great white throne judgement is entirely finished, but now it would be in a bodily sense.
To me it doesn't even remotely seem reasonable that all of the following events can be fulfilled within 24 hours or less----all of the wicked still alive when Jesus bodily returns, being destroyed, the beast and false prophet, plus satan and his angels, these all getting cast into the LOF, all of the dead rising then being judged at the great white throne judgment, not to mention, those that get to sit upon 12 thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.
And something else to consider, when Christ sits upon His throne of glory, would He still be doing that after 1 Corinthians 15:24 and 1 Corinthians 15:28 have been fulfilled, the fact this throne of glory appears to be connected with---all rule and all authority and power, where we see in 1 Corinthians 15:24 that eventually He shall have put down all rule and all authority and power? Are we to then believe He only gets to sit upon His throne of glory for no more than 24 hours at most, keeping in mind, Matthew 25 already proves He doesn't sit upon His throne of glory until He bodily returns first?
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