- Jul 21, 2019
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Hello! For most of my life, I've understood drinking to be sinful under all circumstances. However, while the Bible condemns drunkenness in no uncertain terms (see 1 Corinthians 6:9-10; Ephesians 5:18), I've come across some verses that cause me to question if alcohol consumption is always sinful.
The first passage I'd like to consider is Psalm 104:14-15 (NKJV, emphasis mine):
He causes the grass to grow for the cattle,
And vegetation for the service of man,
That he may bring forth food from the earth,
And wine that makes glad the heart of man,
Oil to make his face shine,
And bread which strengthens man’s heart.
The passage above teaches that God actually intends wine for us to make our hearts glad. For passages that speak of wine in a good way, I've often heard preachers explain that the wine is non-alcoholic. However, while it's true that different words are used of wine in the original languages of the Bible, the Hebrew word used in this verse for wine is yayin, which according to Strong’s Definitions means "wine (as fermented); by implication, intoxication:—banqueting, wine, wine(-bibber)." Does this teach that God intends fermented wine as a blessing, then?
There's also Isaiah 25:6 (emphasis mine):
And in this mountain
The Lord of hosts will make for all people
A feast of choice pieces,
A feast of wines on the lees,
Of fat things full of marrow,
Of well-refined wines on the lees.
Isn't this speaking of "wines on the lees" (aged wine) as a good thing?
The third and final passage I'd like to consider is John 2:1-11, the record of Jesus turning water to wine. The Greek word translated "wine" here is oinos. I've heard that this word can refer to either alcoholic or non-alcoholic wine depending on the context, and so I've always been told that the "wine" in this passage is non-alcoholic. However, there's something in the context I didn't know about, specifically what the master of the feast said in verse 10: "Every man at the beginning sets out the good wine, and when the guests have well drunk, then the inferior. You have kept the good wine until now!" (emphasis mine). Some claim that non-alcoholic wine was considered the "good wine" back then. However, the Greek word translated "drunk" is methuo, which according to Strong’s Definitions means "to drink to intoxication, i.e. get drunk:—drink well, make (be) drunk(-en)."
Now obviously, since drunkenness is condemned, Jesus didn't endorse that. However, it appears that the "good wine" here contains alcohol, since we read that it was possible to get "well drunk" (methuo) on the good wine referenced.
What are your thoughts? Do these passages endorse the moderate consumption of alcohol? Thanks in advance for your input!
The first passage I'd like to consider is Psalm 104:14-15 (NKJV, emphasis mine):
He causes the grass to grow for the cattle,
And vegetation for the service of man,
That he may bring forth food from the earth,
And wine that makes glad the heart of man,
Oil to make his face shine,
And bread which strengthens man’s heart.
The passage above teaches that God actually intends wine for us to make our hearts glad. For passages that speak of wine in a good way, I've often heard preachers explain that the wine is non-alcoholic. However, while it's true that different words are used of wine in the original languages of the Bible, the Hebrew word used in this verse for wine is yayin, which according to Strong’s Definitions means "wine (as fermented); by implication, intoxication:—banqueting, wine, wine(-bibber)." Does this teach that God intends fermented wine as a blessing, then?
There's also Isaiah 25:6 (emphasis mine):
And in this mountain
The Lord of hosts will make for all people
A feast of choice pieces,
A feast of wines on the lees,
Of fat things full of marrow,
Of well-refined wines on the lees.
Isn't this speaking of "wines on the lees" (aged wine) as a good thing?
The third and final passage I'd like to consider is John 2:1-11, the record of Jesus turning water to wine. The Greek word translated "wine" here is oinos. I've heard that this word can refer to either alcoholic or non-alcoholic wine depending on the context, and so I've always been told that the "wine" in this passage is non-alcoholic. However, there's something in the context I didn't know about, specifically what the master of the feast said in verse 10: "Every man at the beginning sets out the good wine, and when the guests have well drunk, then the inferior. You have kept the good wine until now!" (emphasis mine). Some claim that non-alcoholic wine was considered the "good wine" back then. However, the Greek word translated "drunk" is methuo, which according to Strong’s Definitions means "to drink to intoxication, i.e. get drunk:—drink well, make (be) drunk(-en)."
Now obviously, since drunkenness is condemned, Jesus didn't endorse that. However, it appears that the "good wine" here contains alcohol, since we read that it was possible to get "well drunk" (methuo) on the good wine referenced.
What are your thoughts? Do these passages endorse the moderate consumption of alcohol? Thanks in advance for your input!
