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They both presuppose ADS.
ADS? They both make ads.
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They both presuppose ADS.
Well, that is a much better answer.
ADS? They both make ads.
They’re not the same argument.How is it a caricature if they’re both the same argument with the only difference being the amount of linear time that passed?
They’re not the same argument.
The first argument says, “this church claimed books A-C are canon, this other church claimed books X-Z are canon — who do we follow??” Further, it says that the canon of Scripture is defined by an (ecumenical) council.
At one point Paul hadn't written his letter to Timothy.Here's an easy one: At some point in the first hour, Mr. Dyer says the NT wasn't even canonized until the late 4th century (and Revelation wasn't included for another couple hundred years after that), so how could the early Church have been a 'Sola Scriptura' church if some churches had A,B,C scriptures while others had X,Y,Z scriptures. It wasn't until several councils after the first Nicaea that scriptures A,B,C were deemed authentic along with X,Y,Z scriptures along with 21 other epistles. So, that essentially cancels out that the Ordo Theologae comes from the scriptures alone.
I still think it’s two distinct argumentsThat's not what the argument was. The argument was: Some communities had books A,B,C, while others had X,Y,Z which were all deemed canon at a latter council. There's no language in the argument about a "Who do we follow?" situation.
I still think it’s two distinct arguments
Plus this is also a historically inaccurate representation of how the canon was canonized
Right, but we have plenty of ante-Nicene fathers and local churches with their “local canons” (so-to-speak) that match the current lists. The problem is that there isn’t a definitive date or event — before or after Nicea — that we can point to and say “this is when the NT was canonized.”If I wanted to be historically accurate, I'd have included a clause in the argument saying "There were also books 1,2,3 which were excluded from the canon due to inauthenticity;" but for the sake of brevity, didn't.
The reason I prefer the ante-Nicene to the Apostolic age for this argument is because Many-a-Reformationist (the subject of discussion) like to argue that the Church inexplicably fell apart after Nicea 1 due to some conspircacy to do with "Constantine and the Papists." To state that the NT wasn't even canonized until after Nicea 1 breaks that dumb argument.
Lol, sure. Catholicism and Protestantism are two sides of the "not Orthodox" coin, just as Protestantism and Orthodoxy are two sides of "not Catholic" coin, and Orthodoxy and Catholicism are two sides of the "not Protestant" coin. What a brilliant answer.
Another illuminating response from the ever-polemical Orthodox.
The problem is that there isn’t a definitive date or event — before or after Nicea — that we can point to and say “this is when the NT was canonized.”
Even to talk about the Canon in that way is to buy in to the radical Protestant narrative about us and the Catholics (not all Protestants, as we both know, are the same). It’s like when we recognize the Saints. The radical Protestants would have one believe that we are “making” someone a saint and “deciding” who is a saint, thus placing ourselves in the judgment throne of God, etc. We would disagree — we simply recognize and acknowledge the presence of Christ and the Holy Spirit in our reposed brethren. Same way with the development of the Scripture canon. The list of Scriptures weren’t ever formally canonized in an ecumenical council - they were simply recognized over time by the Church as being guiding lights, writings from Spirit-bearers, and Spirit-bearing texts themselves
The fact that there is history behind the canon might get an uninformed Protestant to start thinking about this a bit deeper, but I know plenty of Protestants who know early church history inside and out and won’t be swayed in the slightest by pointing out the *slight* variants in the various lists of canonical
Agreed and agreed. Even to your first point, you could argue it was after the 9th century. Rome was still in communion with the other Patriarchs at that time and the Roman (OT) canon is different from the Byzantine so even by that late it wasn’t universal.It's a wide range. I've heard as far as 9th century AD until the canon was realized, and even then the Reformers still came through and changed their own canon citing some humanistic reasoning of 'going back to the original Hebrew.'
I get what you're saying. Point being, relying on scripture alone to determine the practice of the faith is a failing project (as revealed by modern and post-modern Christianity) since the scriptures were in flux for a better part of the first millennium.
And, agreed that relying solely on Scripture is problematic (this was a big factor in my own conversion), although I still disagree with your reasoning (it’s a problem because the definition of scripture was in flux). I can understand what you’re saying, but even if the canon wasn’t debated at all, sola scriptura as a principle would still have issues.
This is actually sort of a cheap shot. All three traditions believe that God reveals himself. None of them has a direct pipeline to the Holy Trinity. (Protestants have misrepresented Catholics as claiming that for the Pope, but it's not really true.) They have somewhat different ways of judging what God actually wants, but there's a fair amount of overlap.TL;DR - It all boils down to what your Ordo Theologae (Order of Theology) is.
For Roman Catholics; Theology derives from the Pope.
For Protestants; Theology derives from the scriptures.
For Othodox; Theology derives from the Holy Trinity.
The second generation of Lutherans (the “Tubingen school” - some of Melanchthon’s student like Jakob Andraea if I remember correctly) had some dialogues with the Patriarch of Constantinople (Jeremias II). They went back and forth a bit but without much real progress. It’s been a while since I’ve read the letters, but I believe the biggest sticking points were the filioque and invocation of saints... I don’t recall sola scriptura being debated but I’m sure it came up (it’s worth noting that the Historic Lutheran view of Sola Scriptura still maintains that the Church Fathers are of a HUGE importance)I don't think Protestants actually made any judgement about Orthodox in this regard, although I would consider it to be true of Orthodox tradition as well.
Craig has flirted with Reformed theology and offers a much better polemic.
Orthodox Christian Theology
None of them has a direct pipeline to the Holy Trinity.