Why was having multiple wives allowed?

Bacey92

Bacey92
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Hi everyone!

I was just wondering why so many men in the old testament had so many wives?

If it was a sin why did they have multiple wives?

Genesis 2:24: "Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.

It clearly states in Genesis that a married couple becomes one flesh, Were these men not aware that it was a sin to have multiple wives and concubines?

Also, did they ever come to realise that it was a sin and repented and changed their ways?

I am just curious why it was okay back then and how it became sin or if it was always a sin and how and why it has changed.

Thank you for reading.
 

JohnDB

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Abraham and Moses both had more than one wife.
So I'd be careful with the accusations.

It's only the selfishness and individualism of today's culture that makes it difficult for one man and one woman to commit to marriage much less for one guy to be successful in marrying more than one.

It once was all about "many hands make for light work." And pride in being a part of a large family...
Now it's "look at my mansion, boat, car and trophy wife and child"

Huge difference in culture.
 
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Charlie24

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Hi everyone!

I was just wondering why so many men in the old testament had so many wives?

If it was a sin why did they have multiple wives?

Genesis 2:24: "Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.

It clearly states in Genesis that a married couple becomes one flesh, Were these men not aware that it was a sin to have multiple wives and concubines?

Also, did they ever come to realise that it was a sin and repented and changed their ways?

I am just curious why it was okay back then and how it became sin or if it was always a sin and how and why it has changed.

Hi everyone!

I was just wondering why so many men in the old testament had so many wives?

If it was a sin why did they have multiple wives?

Genesis 2:24: "Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.

It clearly states in Genesis that a married couple becomes one flesh, Were these men not aware that it was a sin to have multiple wives and concubines?

Also, did they ever come to realise that it was a sin and repented and changed their ways?

I am just curious why it was okay back then and how it became sin or if it was always a sin and how and why it has changed.

Thank you for reading.

Acts 17:30 sheds some light on the subject.

There was a long period of time that ignorance prevailed over man, and God winked at it, in other words, He withheld judgement.

The bottom line is that Adam and Eve along with their first line of descendants did a very poor job of teaching God. The world became so wicked, with the help of Satan, that God had to destroy it with a flood.

By the time of Abraham, God still winked at sin such as multiple wives. God gave Israel the Law and still winked at certain sins.

By the end of the Old Testament scripture with Malachi, there would be 400 years of silence from the Word of God. As the New Testament opens John the Baptist is introducing Christ to Israel. But during that 400 years the Greek culture had taken root and we see very little or no multiple wives in scripture.

God no longer winks at multiple wives or any sin for that matter. His Word has been established after a long haul of bearing with man.

As you mentioned in Gen., it was clear from the beginning that God intended one wife for man.
 
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SkyWriting

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Were these men not aware that it was a sin to have multiple wives and concubines?

Sin is decided by you and not others. Sin is invisible outside your mind.

I know this example is not common but is from TV I saw last night:

A teacher in Abnormal Psychology class calls on a student from the audience.
For the demonstration, he asks the student to punch him in the stomach in return for an "A" in class.
No results. He then threatens to fail the student.
No results. Then he offers a briefcase with a million dollars for the punch
and a number of students agree to take him up on it.
Then he punches the student in the stomach who doubles over.

The resolution is: The "volunteer" was a theater student who was never actually hit.

So we can judge the actions of the volunteer,
the students who agree,
and the teacher.
And we can be wrong as to who has sinned.

Sin is invisible outside a person's mind because you don't know the intent or if the actions are sin in that person's mind.
 
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Hawkins

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Usually the Bible doesn't condemn a practice usually adapted by the most decent and moral humans on earth, in order not to give a wrong information on what salvation is. God's job is not to condemn all humans but to identify the righteous from the wicked.

Abraham, since Sarah could not give birth to a child that's why he has a second wife. It is nothing about personal desire. God however promised him that the Jews will be from Sarah.

Moses was raised by Egyptians while polygamy is a practice in the middle east.

David and Solomon are kings they thus follow the same practice of all other kings. God never said that He likes kings. He discouraged so but kings were a result requested by the Israelites.

Jesus said,

Matthew 19:4-5 (NIV2011)
4 “Haven’t you read,” he replied, “that at the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female,’
5 and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh’?
 
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Fervent

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Part of understanding the Bible is to realize that not everything it records is endorsed, even if it doesn't explicitly denounce it. Instead the narrative serves to show the error of the practice as each of the polygamous relationships created trouble for those involved. The wives routinely end up despising each other and the children set themselves at odds as well. This is ultimately shown in Solomon since his multiple wives drew his heart from God and ultimately is the turning point in Israel's slide into idolatry.

Why was it allowed? So we could learn from the mistakes of others as to why it's wrong.
 
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Francis Drake

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Men frequently died in battle, therefore there was a shortage of husbands. In order to keep up the populations stock, multiple wives was a good idea.

Also for the senior men in a tribe, it was important to have plenty of offspring to defend the bloodline, again solved by multiple wives.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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Abraham and Moses both had more than one wife.
So I'd be careful with the accusations.

It's only the selfishness and individualism of today's culture that makes it difficult for one man and one woman to commit to marriage much less for one guy to be successful in marrying more than one.

It once was all about "many hands make for light work." And pride in being a part of a large family...
Now it's "look at my mansion, boat, car and trophy wife and child"

Huge difference in culture.

Hagar was a maid, whom Sarah treated as a surrogate mother. In this case the surrogate mother would lay between Sarah's legs. So, when Sarah Hagar became pregnant, the child would be legally Sarah's offspring. Variances in translation is because modern culture tries to read out standards and values into the text.

And Sarai said unto Abram, Behold now, the Lord hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid; it may be that I may obtain children by her. And Abram hearkened to the voice of Sarai. (Genesis 16:2)
Hagar and Mesopotamian Surrogacy: What a New Discovery Says
 
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Daniel Marsh

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Bible not state to have multiple wives is sin.

We know Jesus defined Marriage as one man and one woman.

Informational on ANE practices:

"
5.1 A slave-girl
The most widely known way to have a second wife was to bring in a slave-girl. In
the Bible we see that the childless Sarai offered her husband Abram her Egyptian
slave-girl Hagar:
Take my slave-girl; perhaps through her I shall have a son (Genesis 16:2).
She gave Hagar to Abram as his wife after almost ten years of childlessness. As the
Bible story develops we are told that she was an upstart slave-girl and developed
ideas about herself above her station. That was not a unique situation, for we see
a slave-girl (šipḥā) getting the better of her mistress (g
ebirā) cited in the book of
Proverbs as one of the problems that could cause chaos in the world.
Under three things the earth shakes, four things it cannot bear: a slave becoming a king, a
fool gorging himself, a hateful woman getting wed, and a slave supplanting her mistress
(Prov. 30:22–23).
A slave-girl would take on a more elevated position if she bore children. Her
status was sometimes recognised with a new contract. Old Babylonian marriage
contracts state that such a girl would be a man’s ‘wife’ and his wife’s ‘slave-girl’,
maintaining the higher position of his first wife.¹² In an anecdotal speech a slave
who had become a second wife in this way said,
I am a slave-girl and I have no authority over my mistress. Let me go and pick my own
husband.¹³
The laws of Ur-Nammu consider the repercussions when a man took the initiative
in ‘making the slave-girl just like her mistress’. Whoever then insulted her would
have to go and wash out his mouth:¹⁴
If anyone should utter a curse against the slave-girl of a man, who has been made (equal to)
her mistress, then his mouth should be rubbed with a litre of salt (§ 25).
12 J.J. Finkelstein, YOS 13 (1972) p. 15 f.
13 B. Alster, Proverbs of ancient Sumer I (1997) 247, Coll. 19 Section D 11; 326 UET 6/2 386.
14 A. Falkenstein in C. Wilcke, Das Lugalbandaepos (1969) 182; Studies Th. Jacobsen (2002)
319 f.; see H. Neumann in Durand, La Femme (1987) 135–137. Previously it was thought that a
slave-girl put herself on a par with her mistress and was punished. – Now C. Wilcke, Festschrift
J. Krecher (2014) 546 § 30’.
A slave-girl 169
The following law deals with someone striking a slave, but the passage about the
punishment has been broken off. Was she a slave-girl who had been promoted to
be the wife, or was she a concubine? Slave-girls could sometimes also be concubines, as we shall see in Chapter 6.
In the Old Assyrian period a childless wife could buy a slave-girl on her own
initiative.
If she has not produced a descendant for him within two years, she shall herself buy a slavegirl and as soon as she later produces a child for him, she may sell her to whomsoever she
wishes.¹⁵
We often see in the Old Babylonian period that the second wife is from humble
origins and is evidently a slave. Even so, she may not be sold.
One instance of this is a marriage in Sippar in the time of King Immerum. We
learn from this text that the second woman is of lowly birth and that her fertility has already been proven.¹⁶ The text is concerned with a certain Warad-Sîn,
the son of Ibni-Sîn, who had married a girl named Ištar-ummi. He was a wealthy
man and the text comes from his archive. Ištar-ummi is a typical slave’s name,
and the phrase ‘is her name’ after the name itself is an addition often found with
the names of slaves. It is stated that the girl was the daughter of Buzazum and
Lamassatum, and on the clay envelope in which the text was wrapped her mother
L. is said to be a nun (a nadîtu, of the god Šamaš). One assumes that the girl
had at some time been adopted as a daughter by the couple, B. and L. She was
taken in marriage out of their custody by Warad-Sîn, undoubtedly as his second
wife. He paid forty shekels of silver as her ‘bride-price’ and he also gave them a
slave, specified by name. This was exceptional. The price given is higher than we
know from elsewhere and the gift of a slave was also unprecedented. According
to the envelope, the parents of the bride could not complain against or make any
demands on ‘Ištar-ummi and her children’, which is surprising. It is conceivable
that the children already existed. We know of a similar case from a contract for a
marriage, where the first wife had the name of a nun and the second was called
her ‘sister’. There mention is made of the children of the second wife, ‘which
had been or would be born’ (they were regarded as being the children of both
women).¹⁷ We learn from this that a second wife with children could be married.
This woman was seen as being fertile, which she would have to be when taken
15 ICK I 3. We shall translate this text in full later.
16 VAS 8 4–5 (VAB 5 32), discussed by M. Stol in Studies A. Skaist (2012) 157 f.
17 BAP 89 with R. Harris, JNES 33 (1974) 365 f. One of a group of three texts which we shall discuss later under ‘A marriage to two sisters’.
170 A second wife
as a second wife. Reverting to the high bride-price, we note that the bride was
valuable for two reasons. She had shown that she was fertile and furthermore
she had brought children to the marriage. This would explain why the bride-price
was high. Possibly a slave was given in exchange for the children. It is conceivable
that this slave would be later adopted by the couple on condition that he would
care for them in their old age. That was something that often happened.¹⁸
One gets the impression that second wives came from humble parentage.
Their simple names already indicate this.¹⁹ Possibly they were handed over on
payment of a bride-price by destitute parents. In those circumstances the ‘brideprice’ seems more likely to have been a ‘woman’s price’, an idea which can be
supported with textual evidence. A woman ‘takes’ a girl like this from her father
and mother and pays ‘the full bride-price’. This was done with the intention
of avoiding having to make later payments, because there was probably some
concern that the bride-price had been really very low. The girl was to be a ‘slavegirl’ for this woman, but for her husband Warad-Sîn ‘she was a wife’. The girl
had to share in the likes and dislikes of the woman. But if ever she ‘made her
heart sick’ she could immediately be sold, after she had been marked as a slave
by shaving off her hair.²⁰ The inferior status of this girl, who was after all a free
woman, is surprising. Did her parents in fact sell her? Or is this a clause in divorce
law which aims to mark the low status of this woman within marriage?
5.2 Initiating the transaction
Sometimes the man took the initiative in procuring a second wife, at other times ..."
https://prod-com-bibliolabs-nuvique...6e6bdd7f2c39c9a34de8c5db91fef7f45503af5acb8ef
 
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Daniel Marsh

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Bible not state to have multiple wives is sin.
"I believe that God tolerated polygamy, but never condoned it.
...
Well first of all, Deuteronomy 17:17 forbids kings from marrying more than one wife, so it doesn’t make sense that God would give that clear prohibition and then give David multiple wives. Furthermore, in Leviticus 18:17, it forbids marrying a woman and her daughter, so that would also be odd for God to give David Saul’s wife, who was his mother-in-law.
..." Does God Endorse Polygamy?
 
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JohnDB

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Hagar was a maid, whom Sarah treated as a surrogate mother. In this case the surrogate mother would lay between Sarah's legs. So, when Sarah Hagar became pregnant, the child would be legally Sarah's offspring. Variances in translation is because modern culture tries to read out standards and values into the text.

And Sarai said unto Abram, Behold now, the Lord hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid; it may be that I may obtain children by her. And Abram hearkened to the voice of Sarai. (Genesis 16:2)
Hagar and Mesopotamian Surrogacy: What a New Discovery Says

AFTER Sarah died...
Not before for Abraham.
 
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ralliann

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AFTER Sarah died...
Not before for Abraham.
Ge 16:3 And Sarai Abram’s wife took Hagar her maid the Egyptian, after Abram had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to her husband Abram to be his wife.
 
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