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Is it common for Mormons or any other groups of Christians to believe that the holy spirit had sex with Mary to conceive Jesus?
I came across the following statement in another forum:
"The Nicene Creed, which comes directly from the council of Nicea, which I talked about above, is an integral part of many Christian Church Services. The Nicene Creed contains the following words,
We believe in one God,
the Father almighty,
maker of heaven and earth,
of all things visible and invisible.
And in one Lord Jesus Christ,
the only Son of God,
begotten from the Father before all ages,
God from God,
Light from Light,
true God from true God,
begotten, not made;
The word 'begotten' is there twice, and it is distinguished from the word 'made' which is generic. Begotten is past tense of the word 'beget'. Here is the definition of the word 'beget'. This is from google.
1.(typically of a man, sometimes of a man and a woman) bring (a child) into existence by the process of reproduction.
definition begotten - Google Search
What is the 'process of reproduction' between a man and a women ? It is sex, a sexual act. That is the definition of the word. As I explained in my post, in 325 A.D., in Rome, it was something very common for people to believe that a god could have sex with a human women and produce another god as a result of that act. This is where this idea comes from, not from the teachings of Jesus(peace be upon him).
Here is John 3:16, the words of Paul that Christians use as the basis of their faith (Modern Day Christians). This is from the King James Version of the Bible
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believed in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. ... For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.
So for a Christian to say that they don't believe Jesus was born thru a sexual act between God and Mary (because who else would it be, right ? ), then they either have to change the definition of the word 'begotten' to something else, or they have to disbelieve in Bible (not all the Bible but several verses in it) and the Nicene Creed.
Now, to be fair, some Christians will say that the word 'begotten' is a metaphor for something else and it wasn't really a sexual act. If that is the case, then I am asking why, in the two most important places for Christian theology (the Nicene Creed and John 3:16) the word begotten is repeatedly used, and the meaning of 'begotten' is clear. BTW, in the later 'versions' of the 'Bible', 'begotten' was changed to 'unique' in several places, which leads to a whole other series of question which are outside of the scope of this thread. The main question is, If the Bible is the 'Word of God' as Christians say, then what right does man have to change it, and if it is not the 'Word of God' but the 'Word of man' then why do you believe in it ? "
Do any Christians actually believe this?
I came across the following statement in another forum:
"The Nicene Creed, which comes directly from the council of Nicea, which I talked about above, is an integral part of many Christian Church Services. The Nicene Creed contains the following words,
We believe in one God,
the Father almighty,
maker of heaven and earth,
of all things visible and invisible.
And in one Lord Jesus Christ,
the only Son of God,
begotten from the Father before all ages,
God from God,
Light from Light,
true God from true God,
begotten, not made;
The word 'begotten' is there twice, and it is distinguished from the word 'made' which is generic. Begotten is past tense of the word 'beget'. Here is the definition of the word 'beget'. This is from google.
1.(typically of a man, sometimes of a man and a woman) bring (a child) into existence by the process of reproduction.
definition begotten - Google Search
What is the 'process of reproduction' between a man and a women ? It is sex, a sexual act. That is the definition of the word. As I explained in my post, in 325 A.D., in Rome, it was something very common for people to believe that a god could have sex with a human women and produce another god as a result of that act. This is where this idea comes from, not from the teachings of Jesus(peace be upon him).
Here is John 3:16, the words of Paul that Christians use as the basis of their faith (Modern Day Christians). This is from the King James Version of the Bible
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believed in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. ... For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.
So for a Christian to say that they don't believe Jesus was born thru a sexual act between God and Mary (because who else would it be, right ? ), then they either have to change the definition of the word 'begotten' to something else, or they have to disbelieve in Bible (not all the Bible but several verses in it) and the Nicene Creed.
Now, to be fair, some Christians will say that the word 'begotten' is a metaphor for something else and it wasn't really a sexual act. If that is the case, then I am asking why, in the two most important places for Christian theology (the Nicene Creed and John 3:16) the word begotten is repeatedly used, and the meaning of 'begotten' is clear. BTW, in the later 'versions' of the 'Bible', 'begotten' was changed to 'unique' in several places, which leads to a whole other series of question which are outside of the scope of this thread. The main question is, If the Bible is the 'Word of God' as Christians say, then what right does man have to change it, and if it is not the 'Word of God' but the 'Word of man' then why do you believe in it ? "
Do any Christians actually believe this?
