Is this scripture below saying a Christian man should only marry a divorced woman if her divorce was because of sexual immorality or a Christian man should never marry a divorced woman full stop?
If the man does marry a divorced women would that mean his sins are going to be continuous in adultery as long as he is in that relationship, just as if someone carried on with fornication or any other sin after coming to and accepting Christ. Which would then make his sinning wilful after being saved.
31"Furthermore it has been said,
"Whoever divorces his wife, let him give
her a certificate of divorce.'
32But I say to you that whoever divorces
his wife for any reason except sexual
immorality causes her to commit
adultery; and whoever marries a woman
who is divorced commits adultery.
If the man does marry a divorced women would that mean his sins are going to be continuous in adultery as long as he is in that relationship, just as if someone carried on with fornication or any other sin after coming to and accepting Christ. Which would then make his sinning wilful after being saved.
31"Furthermore it has been said,
"Whoever divorces his wife, let him give
her a certificate of divorce.'
32But I say to you that whoever divorces
his wife for any reason except sexual
immorality causes her to commit
adultery; and whoever marries a woman
who is divorced commits adultery.