I do not ignore Hebrews 8:6-13, and Hebrews 10:16-18, which directly quote from Jeremiah 31:31-34, proving that the New Covenant was fulfilled at Calvary.
If that is a "generalization", throw your Bible in the trashcan because it does not mean what it says.
.
baberean2,
1. I didn’t say the New Covenant wasn’t fulfilled at Calvary, we both agree on that.
2. Where we disagree is that you think it was given to the nation of Israel in the framework of the church.
3. One it says Israel and the house of Judah he will make the New Covenant.
The New Testament Church was not mentioned at all in this prophecy.
This was in conjunction with the kingdom.
4. After those days is in the future tribulation connected with the Kingdom.
There is no allusion or implication of the Day of Pentecost in this passage.
Writing the law in their hearts and putting in their inward parts and being their God and being his people is about the kingdom for the kingdom will begin when Judah and Israel repent and become one stick Ezekiel 37:16-28.
Verse 34: And they shall teach no more every man his neighbor and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord for they shall all know me from the least of them unto the greatest of them saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity and I will remember their sin no more.
This never happened at Calvary or in the early church.
Tell me how every man didn’t have to be taught anymore to know the Lord? Which means being saved. That never happened. The Jews got more stubborn until Paul left them to go to the Gentiles Acts 28:24-31. And that was before 70 A.D. that Jesus prophesied about the destruction of Jerusalem and the nation in Matthew 24:1-2.
5. In Matthew 23:37-39, when Israel rejected Christ he said your house will be left desolate.
FOR I SAY UNTO YOU, YE SHALL NOT SEE ME HENCEFORTH, TILL SHALL SAY,
BLESSED IS HE THAT COMETH IN THE NAME OF THE LORD. This never happened at Calvary or in the early church at all. They are still backslidden and are not all saved.
6. So are you going to Deny what the scriptures say here in the whole context?
7. Hebrews 8:6-13 is the same context as Jeremiah 31:31-34.
8. Hebrews 10:16-18; This was spoken to Hebrew Christians who Paul was contrasting the Old and New Covenants.
The law was a shadow of things to come. The New Covenant was the reality.
Verse 9 says he taketh away the First that he may establish the second.
Verse 16 says, this is the Covenant which is the New Covenant; that I will make with them ( the house of Israel and Judah) future and not the present church, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts and in their minds will I write them;
V17; And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more. This is all future.
He wrote to the Jews as a Jew and not to gentile churches as in his epistles.
So yes he mentions this New Covenant that took the place of the Old Covenant at Calvary.
Christ is offering is efficacious for all past, present and future sins on condition on proper confession of sins and continuance in grace.
This is the reason Paul utilized Jeremiah’s passage not for the time when Israel and Judah would be united as one but the spiritual aspect of the statement above about Christ offering for people to be forgiven without the blood of bulls and goats.
Are you going to deny this truth in the word?
9. In conclusion, there is no generalization about the New Covenant coming to pass at Calvary.
The generalization you make is that it is associated naturally with the church age at the Day of Pentecost and Peter addressing the men of Israel. They all have to be saved as a nation and because they weren’t, proves your doctrine wrong. Are you going to deny this truth and stay with your wrong talking points? Jerry kelso