Bible Verses Missing in Modern Translations?

Michie

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There are a lot of people today that are what we call “King James only“ Christians. They believe that the King James Version (KJV) of the Bible is the only inspired version and that modern translations are modernist. One argument for this is that there are some verses contained in the KJV which are not in recent modern versions.

The argument of KJV-only adherents only betrays their ignorance of the process of inspiration, transmission and translation. We sometimes joked that, “If the KJV was good enough for St. Paul, it is good enough for me.”

Examples of missing verses and passages are Mark 16:9–20, John 5:4, Acts 8:37, and 1 John 5:7.

We don’t have any of the original writings of the documents in the New Testament, only copies and copies of copies. There are thousands of fragments and manuscripts from the early centuries. The earliest is called the John Ryland fragment which contains a small portion of John 17 and 18. It is dated at AD 125 and was found in the sands of Egypt and written of papyrus.

The more ancient the manuscripts the more likely they are to be accurate to what the apostles actually wrote. And the more ancient manuscripts found to compare and analyze, the more accurate the translation will be.

The KJV was translated in 1611 by Protestant King James of England and was translated when we were still devoid of the best and most ancient manuscripts that testify to the original writings of the apostles. Over the last 400 years since the translation of the KJV there have been many newly discovered ancient and more reliable manuscripts.

Modern scholarship uses the most authoritative and trustworthy manuscripts to update the text of Scripture to make it much more accurate to what the apostles actually wrote. These manuscripts were not available during the translations of the KJV.

So, it was discovered there were some verses added by copyists over the centuries so King James had these later interpolations included in his translation.

Continued below.
Are Verses Left Out of Modern Translations of the Bible? | Defenders of the Catholic Faith | Hosted by Stephen K. Ray
 
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Dansiph

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There are a lot of people today that are what we call “King James only“ Christians. They believe that the King James Version (KJV) of the Bible is the only inspired version and that modern translations are modernist. One argument for this is that there are some verses contained in the KJV which are not in recent modern versions.

The argument of KJV-only adherents only betrays their ignorance of the process of inspiration, transmission and translation. We sometimes joked that, “If the KJV was good enough for St. Paul, it is good enough for me.”

Examples of missing verses and passages are Mark 16:9–20, John 5:4, Acts 8:37, and 1 John 5:7.

We don’t have any of the original writings of the documents in the New Testament, only copies and copies of copies. There are thousands of fragments and manuscripts from the early centuries. The earliest is called the John Ryland fragment which contains a small portion of John 17 and 18. It is dated at AD 125 and was found in the sands of Egypt and written of papyrus.

The more ancient the manuscripts the more likely they are to be accurate to what the apostles actually wrote. And the more ancient manuscripts found to compare and analyze, the more accurate the translation will be.

The KJV was translated in 1611 by Protestant King James of England and was translated when we were still devoid of the best and most ancient manuscripts that testify to the original writings of the apostles. Over the last 400 years since the translation of the KJV there have been many newly discovered ancient and more reliable manuscripts.

Modern scholarship uses the most authoritative and trustworthy manuscripts to update the text of Scripture to make it much more accurate to what the apostles actually wrote. These manuscripts were not available during the translations of the KJV.

So, it was discovered there were some verses added by copyists over the centuries so King James had these later interpolations included in his translation.

Continued below.
Are Verses Left Out of Modern Translations of the Bible? | Defenders of the Catholic Faith | Hosted by Stephen K. Ray
This doesn't really relate but it also sort of does. Can a Catholic use the KJV if they want to?
 
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Michie

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This doesn't really relate but it also sort of does. Can a Catholic use the KJV if they want to?
You know, I have no idea. :eek: I know the KJV does not include the books that are in the Catholic Bibles so I do not know why they would want to use it.
 
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Michie

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I found this-


Question:
So many Protestants I know use the King James Bible. Who was King James, and what authority did he have to produce a Bible?
Answer:
James I reigned as king of England from 1603 to 1625. He was the son of Mary Queen of Scots, and he had been king of Scotland before succeeding to the English throne at the death of Queen Elizabeth I. He was prompted to produce an English Bible because of the poor and tendentious copies being circulated in England. He feared these could be used by seditious religious and political factions.

His authority was one usurped from the Catholic Church, beginning with his predecessor King Henry VIII. Henry had broken with the Catholic Church and made himself the head of the Church in England, which soon enough became the Church of England. You could say James had no more authority in biblical matters than any head of state, basically none. What authority would a “George Bush Bible” have? The true authority and safeguard over Scripture was and has to be the Catholic Church, to which Christ gave his authority. No secular authority has any rightful authority over the Bible.

For more about Bible translations, see our “Bible Translations Guide” and “Which Translation of the Bible is the Best?

Who Was King James, and What Authority Did He Have to Produce a Bible?
 
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Dansiph

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You know, I have no idea. :eek: I know the KJV does not include the books that are in the Catholic Bibles so I do not know why they would want to use it.
The KJV translators did translate the other books but they called it the Apocrypha. It's available to buy in the same language and style of the KJV still today. In fact Cambridge used to make a KJV with them still included not long back. So technically you could read the other books.

Basically to explain myself I've been reading a book called Catholicism and Fundamentalism by Karl Keating. I thought if a "KJV-Only" person became Catholic could they keep using the Bible they are used to.
 
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Michie

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I found this as well.
Problems with the King James Version

I know there are approved Bibles the church approves of and recommends. I don’t think KJV is among them. I think they have a translation that’s similar though. The KJV originally had the Apocryphal books and were later removed.

Not to mention the Catholic prosecution that was going on at the time. I’ve never been a big fan of that translation but I do own a couple that belonged to family.
 
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Dansiph

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I found this as well.
Problems with the King James Version

I know there are approved Bibles the church approves of and recommends. I don’t think KJV is among them. I think they have a translation that’s similar though. The KJV originally had the Apocryphal books and were later removed.

Not to mention the Catholic prosecution that was going on at the time. I’ve never been a big fan of that translation but I do own a couple that belonged to family.
I think the translation you're referring to is the Douay Rheims? I've added that to my Bible software recently to compare with the KJV. I really like the older language and style of the King James because the Bible is an old book. It suits it in my opinion. I've also read that using thee, thou, ye etc reflects the originals better. The DR also uses thees and thous btw.
 
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Michie

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I think the translation you're referring to is the Douay Rheims? I've added that to my Bible software recently to compare with the KJV. I really like the older language and style of the King James because the Bible is an old book. It suits it in my opinion. I've also read that using thee, thou, ye etc reflects the originals better. The DR also uses thees and thous btw.
Yep! Douay Rheims. I see nothing wrong with the language itself but I find it burdensome reading personally. And I’ve read so much about faulty translation that I just don’t put any effort into reading that version.
 
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