Temporal Salvation?

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GDL

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I assert that we have God's faithfulness to himself as our security and that he will act toward us in the manner he describes at the judgment. Nothing is set in stone specifically until he judges us, except that he will judge us according to our belief status in his Son at that point. Ultimately, we have faith that God will do as he promises when the time comes, and afterward, we have no need of faith/hope, for we will already have what we had hoped for. The full realization of God's promises, are always set in the future!

Doug

Not clear that this answered me, but get the gist & good enough for now. My 1st question up to "..., or" re: your answer was acknowledging your (maybe our) view of warnings (I'm leaving some room for alternatives to test my thinking). The balance was throwing out another possibility I've been looking at in-line with all those granted being brought to completion.

Balance understood.

Am not aligned with 5-Point & really don't think about such things anymore. Just studying the Text.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Well this is all well and good
Don't forget true.

but even if I agreed with your objections to these alleged changes
There is nothing "alleged". I stated FACT. Do you know the difference?

which I do not, your comments are irrelevant because a) we are not talking about pisteuo, but rather arneomai, and b) I was.quoting from the BDAG, second edition, 1958, published two years before my birth!
This is what you said:
"BDAG is smarter than Strongs!".

Maybe you just don't know how to identify the correct Arndt & Gingrich.

Here is a short history of the various editions:

The scholarly standard for Greek lexicons has always been the work of Arndt and Gingrich, 2 German scholars. Their work was originally published in 1910. Walter Bauer published several editions of their work, putting his name in the byline, Bauer, Arndt and Gingrich (BAG).

The first English edition was published in 1957, based on the 4th German edition. BAG

The second English edition was published in 1979, based on the 5th German edition and the first English edition. In this edition, Frederick Danker was involved. BAGD This edition has been the standard for pastors, teachers, and scholars, world-wide.

Danker revised and edited the 3rd English edition in 2000, based on the previous edition and the 6th German edition. BDAG. There have been several significant changes to this edition.

Since you noted the "BDAG", that one was revised and edited in 2000.

The BAG was the first English edition, published in 1957. Danker wasn't even involved in that edition.

And by the way, if you assert that "There is no grace in "commitment salvation". Only works", then you are espousing monergism, and that, logically, makes you a Calvinist!
Doug
Not hardly. I explained the difference between committing one's soul to the Lord and committing to a cause, such as Lordship salvation. In LS, obdience is required for salvation. That's unbiblical.

The Bible teaches that salvation is by grace through faith, and then come the commands for obedience.

Don't you know that a baby must be born BEFORE the parents begin giving the various commands for obedience?
 
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TibiasDad

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The second English edition was published in 1979, based on the 5th German edition and the first English edition. In this edition, Frederick Danker was involved. BAGD This edition has been the standard for pastors, teachers, and scholars, world-wide.

This is the edition I use. So why are you criticizing my definition of arneomai?

Image_1.jpeg



Doug
 
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TibiasDad

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This is the edition I use. So why are you criticizing my definition of arneomai?

View attachment 282756

Image.jpg Image_2.jpeg

Pardon my misunderstanding, but both editions have the same people involved Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich and Danker. Besides, as the cover image shows, Arndt is not even referenced and thus it says Bauer, Gingrich And Danker; BGAD. It's not the first mistake I've made and, unfortunately, won't be the last.

Doug
 
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FreeGrace2

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This is the edition I use. So why are you criticizing my definition of arneomai?

View attachment 282756
Doug
You identified it as BDAG. That's why. My posts have been making that clear.

Apparently you do not know how to identify the edition that you use. There is:
BAG edition, 1957
BAGD edition, 1979
BDAG edition, 2000
 
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TibiasDad

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You identified it as BDAG. That's why. My posts have been making that clear.

Apparently you do not know how to identify the edition that you use. There is:
BAG edition, 1957
BAGD edition, 1979
BDAG edition, 2000

And I have acknowledged the mistake in my understanding. This does not negate the fact that were were not discussing the meaning of pisteuo, but arneomai, deny, disown, repudiate. So what does the 2000 edition say about arneomai, is it any different than my 1979 edition's definition? If not, then the pisteuo reference is a red herring.

Doug
 
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WordSword

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Not certain I completely understand you. Abide means to remain, to stay.
Yes, thus it's not like one can abide for a while, then not abide, because it means, as you've indicated, always to remain, i.e. one cannot temporarily abide because there's nothing temporary about it.

I think another issue worth mentioning is that the commands of God and Christ are only to those who are His! Thus those who are not His will not abide, nor obey.

Appreciate your replies, and God bless!
 
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FreeGrace2

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And I have acknowledged the mistake in my understanding. This does not negate the fact that were were not discussing the meaning of pisteuo, but arneomai, deny, disown, repudiate. So what does the 2000 edition say about arneomai, is it any different than my 1979 edition's definition? If not, then the pisteuo reference is a red herring.

Doug
I'm sorry that you seem just unable to follow what I've posted. I have been clear, though. You noted the WRONG edition, and I showed an example of WHY I don't recommend the WRONG edition that you noted. That's all there is to it.

Can we get back to the discussion?
 
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TibiasDad

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I'm sorry that you seem just unable to follow what I've posted. I have been clear, though. You noted the WRONG edition, and I showed an example of WHY I don't recommend the WRONG edition that you noted. That's all there is to it.

Can we get back to the discussion?

If I had difficulty following your post, I wouldn't have acknowledged my error in thinking Bauer, Gingrich And Danker =BGAD. (Showing pics of the book cover and title page to demonstrate the innocent reason for my error.) So again,a) the earlier edition (1979) is my quotation source, not the later edition, and b) the change in the later edition regarding pisteuo does not have anything to do with the meaning of arneomai, unless the definition in the latter is significantly different than what I quoted from in the '79 edition. Since your chose to throw out the pisteuo red herring (and that is what it is since it has nothing to do with the 2 Tim 2:12 use of arneomai, and your opinion of alleged bias in Danker's alteration of wording in the latest is irrelevant to the topic at hand) I can only assume that you found nothing different regarding arneomai in the 2000 edition.

Thus, I have asked previously, and now do so again, what does the 2000 BDAG say regarding arneomai that is different than my original reference? That is the real issue, and you have shown by both myself and GDL that your word games saying that disown and repudiate are different in meaning is wrong and you are just are just trying to avoid the truth that arneomai is an absolute rejection (though possibly a temporary one, as I am not suggesting it as a necessarily permanent or irreversible thing).

Doug

PS I downloaded a PDF copy of the 3rd Edition BDAG and the is no difference in definition for arneomai from the previous edition.

Doug

 
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FreeGrace2

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If I had difficulty following your post, I wouldn't have acknowledged my error in thinking Bauer, Gingrich And Danker =BGAD. (Showing pics of the book cover and title page to demonstrate the innocent reason for my error.) So again,a) the earlier edition (1979) is my quotation source, not the later edition
I know this, so why do you keep repeating yourself?

and b) the change in the later edition regarding pisteuo does not have anything to do with the meaning of arneomai
Of course it doesn't. So why do you keep repeating yourself?

Since your chose to throw out the pisteuo red herring (and that is what it is since it has nothing to do with the 2 Tim 2:12 use of arneomai
<sigh>

I gave an example of a rather gross error in the BDAG. I wasn't throwing out any red herring. I took you at your own word regarding which lexico you were using.

Thus, I have asked previously, and now do so again, what does the 2000 BDAG say regarding arneomai that is different than my original reference?
As I have already noted, that wasn't the issue of my post at all.

That is the real issue, and you have shown by both myself and GDL that your word games saying that disown and repudiate are different in meaning is wrong and you are just are just trying to avoid the truth that arneomai is an absolute rejection (though possibly a temporary one, as I am not suggesting it as a necessarily permanent or irreversible thing).
After all this nonsense because you cited the WRONG lexicon, let's just get back to business. Now, what is your point about arneomai? What does it mean in your understanding and why is it so important to you, and how does it refute anything I've posted.

Thanks.

PS I downloaded a PDF copy of the 3rd Edition BDAG and the is no difference in definition for arneomai from the previous edition.
I don't really care. Please just answer my questions, let's get off this silly distraction that could have been avoided if you hadn't made a mistake regarding your lexicon.
 
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TibiasDad

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Now, what is your point about arneomai? What does it mean in your understanding and why is it so important to you, and how does it refute anything I've posted.

Okay, fair enough, here is my point(s) regarding arneomai:

1) It is the same definition in both BAGD and BDAG so there is no ploy to change anything from one edition to the other

2) Your assertion, if I am remembering correctly, is that denying pertains to the "reign with him". But this is not in keeping with the text formatting. The formatting of this "trustworthy saying" are two sets of couplets

If we died with him,
we will also live with him;
if we endure,
we will also reign with him.
(and)
If we disown him,
he will also disown us;
if we are faithless,
he remains faithful, for he cannot disown himself.

Thus, the disowning is not intended to be related to the reigning. Moreover, that which is disowned is a person, either God or the one who disowned God. It is not the "reward" of reigning that is implied, at least not directly.

The first couplet is stated positively the second negatively. If we endure we will reign with him, but if we deny him, we are not enduring and therefore will not reign with him. But the denial itself is focused on God himself or man himself (ἡμᾶς), not on peripheral elements directly.

3) God faithfulness is to himself, and thus, to his promises, both positive and negative. Thus, if we endure we will gain the crown of life (James 1:12, 1Peter 5:4, 1 Cor 9:25, Rev 3:11) and rule with him, as God has promised, or, as God has also promised, that after being repudiated/disowned by man he will repudiate, deny anyone who has denied him!


Doug
 
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GDL

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If we died with him,
we will also live with him;
if we endure,
we will also reign with him.
(and)
If we disown him,
he will also disown us;
if we are faithless,
he remains faithful, for he cannot disown himself.

Thus, the disowning is not intended to be related to the reigning.

I find your laying this out in couplets to be a good argument for the negatives applying to both of the positives.

Additionally, a few things of note:

1) Paul does not use arneomai lightly. Titus 1:16 is especially strong where he's talking about unbelieving/unfaithful ones (adjective apistos) who confess (homologeo) to know God but in works deny (arneomai) Him and He says they are disgusting...

2) When Paul uses arneomai in 2Tim, although he uses the verb form apisteo rather than the adjective apistos and as he does in Titus, he's again discussing the same issue of unbelieving/unfaithful people who are denying Him - the denying ones are the unbelieving/unfaithful ones.

3) John in 1John2:23 uses this same antithesis as Paul of arneomai & homologeo, and he speaks of these in very clear terms as being unbelievers - those who deny / do not confess Jesus is the Christ (2:22).

Based upon these & more, including the couplet structure as you've laid it out, I see the evidence pointing to His denial/disowning tying back to both the enduring and the dying. IOW such deniers/ unbelievers/unfaithful ones did not die with Him & [thus obviously] do not endure.

Additionally, within the first couplet, I see the entire process of God's Salvation Plan for us stated in the couplets: From dying with Him to reigning with Him. And the more I've studied Salvation, the more I've seen such language identifying the entire Process & Plan.

Last point for now: To deny/disown Him by word or work is to reject that He is the Christ instead of to confess by word & work that He is the Christ. It's a matter of being unbelieving/unfaithful vs. believing/faithful. There's no death to life, nor endurance to reigning in this status.

Thanks Doug.
 
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GDL

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Last point for now: To deny/disown Him by word or work is to reject that He is the Christ instead of to confess by word & work that He is the Christ. It's a matter of being unbelieving/unfaithful vs. believing/faithful. There's no death to life, nor endurance to reigning in this denying status.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Okay, fair enough, here is my point(s) regarding arneomai:

1) It is the same definition in both BAGD and BDAG so there is no ploy to change anything from one edition to the other
You need to get over this. I never did that. As you already know.

2) Your assertion, if I am remembering correctly, is that denying pertains to the "reign with him". But this is not in keeping with the text formatting. The formatting of this "trustworthy saying" are two sets of couplets

If we died with him,
we will also live with him;
if we endure,
we will also reign with him.
(and)
If we disown him,
he will also disown us;
if we are faithless,
he remains faithful, for he cannot disown himself.
How interesting. The very couplets PROVE (at least clearly demonstrate) that v.12a and v.12b are directly related to each other.

To "reign with Him" is clearly linked to behavior; that being, enduring. That requires a LIFESTYLE. Not a single action or thought.

If you think every believer will 'reign with Him', you are denying ALL the verses that plainly say that God REWARDS faithful lifestyles.

Thus, the disowning is not intended to be related to the reigning.
It is, but you are clearly in denial.

But further, the best translation is "denied", not "disowned".

Moreover, that which is disowned is a person, either God or the one who disowned God. It is not the "reward" of reigning that is implied, at least not directly.
According to my lexicon for the Greek word, is:
to deny, disclaim, disown, to renounce, to to decline, refuse, absolut. to deny contradict.

There you have it. And you are clinging to only 1 word in the range of meanings.

btw, to "reign with Him" IS a kind of ownership. Like an inheritance. Once given, the inheritor owns what has been given in the inheritance.

If a relative dies and you receive an inheritance, to whom does it NOW belong to? You, of course. You become the OWNER of that inheritance.

While I suspect that you will deny the relationship between "reigning with Christ" and that being an inheritance, but the verse parallels Romans 8:17b.

Rom 8:17 - Now if we are children, then we are heirs—heirs of God and co-heirs with Christ, if indeed we share in his sufferings in order that we may also share in his glory.

There are 2 inheritances mentioned here.

The red words are the guaranteed inheritance of God's children, which is to live with God in heaven.

The blue words is the inheritance that is conditioned upon "sharing in Christ's sufferings" in order to "share in His glory". And I emphasized the condition by the words "IF indeed". To show that "sharing in Christ's glory" IS a condition that must be earned by "sharing in Christ's suffering".

Do you want to argue that "enduring (in the faith)" isn't related or the same as "sharing in His suffering"?

I expect you'll deny any connection, of course. But it's there, nonetheless.

Only those believers who endure or share in Christ's sufferings will reign with Him or share in His glory.

How can "reigning with Him" NOT be the same thing as "sharing in His glory"? Of course that's the same thing! It is more than obvious.

But any talk of rewards or loss of rewards refutes the Arminian's claim that salvation can be lost.

The first couplet is stated positively the second negatively. If we endure we will reign with him, but if we deny him, we are not enduring and therefore will not reign with him. But the denial itself is focused on God himself or man himself (ἡμᾶς), not on peripheral elements directly.
This doesn't make any sense. What do you mean by the "denial itself is focused on God Himself? Of course the denial is focused or directed to the one who DOESN'T ENDURE.

3) God faithfulness is to himself, and thus, to his promises, both positive and negative. Thus, if we endure we will gain the crown of life (James 1:12, 1Peter 5:4, 1 Cor 9:25, Rev 3:11) and rule with him, as God has promised, or, as God has also promised, that after being repudiated/disowned by man he will repudiate, deny anyone who has denied him!
True words, but you still don't understand any of them. You equate "enduring" as being saved and going to heaven, and being "denied" as losing salvation and going to hell.

2 Tim 2:12 is clearly about reward for enduring and denial of reward for not enduring.

Just as Romans 8:17b is about the same thing. Those who want to "share in His glory" which obviousy refers to Christ reigning in His kingdom during the Millennial Reign, must also "share in His sufferings", which is the SAME THING as enduring in the faith.

Denial of this is simply denial of the truth.

I have never met an Arminian who understood the doctrine of eternal rewards.
 
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FreeGrace2

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Based upon these & more, including the couplet structure as you've laid it out, I see the evidence pointing to His denial/disowning tying back to both the enduring and the dying. IOW such deniers/ unbelievers/unfaithful ones did not die with Him & [thus obviously] do not endure.
Except for one small point. Paul uses the FIRST person plural pronoun "we", just as John does in his first epistle. By doing that, Paul is including himself as one who could not endure and be denied.

Yes, the word can be used of unbelievers who clearly deny the Savior. But in this specific context, because Paul opens v.11 and 12 with "IF we...". By this, he means "any believer".

Therefore, any believer who endures (in the faith) WILL reign with Christ. A reward.
And, any believer who denies the Lord, WILL BE denied the rewaurd of reigning with Christ.

Arminians cannot accept the doctrine of eternal rewards, because it refutes their narrow view that heaven is based on lifestyle, just as hell is. Which is totally unbiblical.

And, 2 Tim 2:12 is exactly parallel to Romans 8:17b.

Last point for now: To deny/disown Him by word or work is to reject that He is the Christ instead of to confess by word & work that He is the Christ. It's a matter of being unbelieving/unfaithful vs. believing/faithful. There's no death to life, nor endurance to reigning in this status.

Thanks Doug.
Except Peter the apostle was described as having DENIED the Lord 3 times. Was he an unbeliever when he did that? Of course not.

In the following citations, all verses use the same Greek word for "deny" or "disown", regarding what Peter did 3 times.

Matt 26:34, 75 Mark 14:30 Luke 22:34, 61 John 13:38.

So, the word doesn't refer specifically to unbelievers. Unless one wants to argue that Peter still wasn't a believer until AFTER his 3 denials.

Mark 8:29 - And He asked them, “But who do you say that I am?” Peter answered Him, “You are the Christ.”

So, yes, Peter WAS a believer BEFORE he denied the Lord 3 times.
 
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TibiasDad

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I find your laying this out in couplets to be a good argument for the negatives applying to both of the positives.

Additionally, a few things of note:

1) Paul does not use arneomai lightly. Titus 1:16 is especially strong where he's talking about unbelieving/unfaithful ones (adjective apistos) who confess (homologeo) to know God but in works deny (arneomai) Him and He says they are disgusting...

2) When Paul uses arneomai in 2Tim, although he uses the verb form apisteo rather than the adjective apistos and as he does in Titus, he's again discussing the same issue of unbelieving/unfaithful people who are denying Him - the denying ones are the unbelieving/unfaithful ones.

3) John in 1John2:23 uses this same antithesis as Paul of arneomai & homologeo, and he speaks of these in very clear terms as being unbelievers - those who deny / do not confess Jesus is the Christ (2:22).

Based upon these & more, including the couplet structure as you've laid it out, I see the evidence pointing to His denial/disowning tying back to both the enduring and the dying. IOW such deniers/ unbelievers/unfaithful ones did not die with Him & [thus obviously] do not endure.

Additionally, within the first couplet, I see the entire process of God's Salvation Plan for us stated in the couplets: From dying with Him to reigning with Him. And the more I've studied Salvation, the more I've seen such language identifying the entire Process & Plan.

Last point for now: To deny/disown Him by word or work is to reject that He is the Christ instead of to confess by word & work that He is the Christ. It's a matter of being unbelieving/unfaithful vs. believing/faithful. There's no death to life, nor endurance to reigning in this status.

Thanks Doug.

Thank you for the additional information about the use of the words in other contexts and instances. I was focused on staying within the context of 2 Tim 2:1-13. I will add further, as FG2 has already pointed out in part, that Paul includes himself as a part of the dying/living, ensuring/ruling, denying/being denied, faithless/faithfulness of God to himself scenario. As expected, FG2, tries to reduce the ruling, even potentially for Paul, as a mere reward, but neglects the first couplet, the die/live. This makes eternal life an integral, and foundational part of the equation. In other words living and ensuring are inextricably bound to each other. If there is a loss of one, it demands the loss of both! I

Thanks for the teamwork!

Doug
 
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FreeGrace2

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As expect, FG2, tries to reduce the ruling, even potentially for Paul, as a mere reward
How absurd! To reduce an ETERNAL reward to something that is a "mere". But that is what I've expected from all Arminians. And I've given the reason none of them even want to accept the doctrine of ETERNAL reward. It kills their notion that salvation can be lost.

but neglects the first couplet, the die/live.
Why do you make a claim that you know nothing about? Where have I "neglected" v.11? I didn't mention it because I was focusing on v.12.

11 Here is a trustworthy saying: If we died with him, we will also live with him;
12 if we endure, we will also reign with him. If we disown him, he will also deny us;

The "if" in v.11 is a first class condition, since ALL believers HAVE "died with Him". Or prove your disagreement if you do disagree. iow, v.11 is another promise of eternal security. Since (2st class condition) all believers HAVE died with Him, then all believers WILL LIVE WITH HIM. This is a promise of eternal security.

Then Paul goes on in v.12 to teach about what eternity will have; reward for the faithful and denial of reward for the unfaithful.

But this refutes your notion that unfaithfulness will result in going to hell.

As if a new creation, indwelt with the Holy Spirit, sealed with the Holy Spirit as God's own possession, possessing ETERNAL life, can perish.

But Jesus said recipients of eternal life shall NEVER perish.

Can you prove that the word "never" can ever include the meaning of "possibly" or "sometimes" or "maybe"?

This makes eternal life an integral, and foundational part of the equation.
It sure does!! Not only eternal life, but eternal SECURITY!!

In other words living and ensuring are inextricably bound to each other. If there is a loss of one, it demands the loss of both!
No they are not. That is just your flimsy defense to maintain your notion about losing salvation/eternal life.

v.11 is about eternal security. v.12 is about eternal reward.

Your claims to the contrary have proven nothing.

Can you prove that Paul's "if" isn't a first class condition in v.11 and a 3rd class condition in v.12?
 
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BNR32FAN

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The most understandable and encouraging attribute concerning salvation is that of its permanency, after all, it is called “eternal salvation” (Heb 5:9). What part of salvation is temporary, seeing that one of the meanings of redemption is that of being saved from “eternal damnation” (Mar 3:29). Is it a sensible truism that one can be eternally saved and then not eternally saved? Thus being temporarily saved from “everlasting punishment” (Mat 25:46) is clearly a concept of an oxymoron?

The concept of a person losing their salvation is purely from man’s perspective. The idea is that a person could be on the path to salvation then veer away from that path thus forfeiting the salvation he would’ve received had he stayed on the path. From God’s perspective or from the perspective of the book of life such a person was never saved to begin with because they must endure to the end in order to be written in the book of life. So when a person is said to have “lost his salvation” it doesn’t mean he had received eternal life then lost it. It means he had the hope of receiving eternal life and lost it. That’s all any of us have until we die or Christ returns is the hope of salvation. It’s not certain until our time in this world is done. Hence we must abide in Christ and endure to the end in order to receive eternal life. So we can’t actually receive eternal life until that’s been accomplished.
 
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FreeGrace2

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The concept of a person losing their salvation is purely from man’s perspective.
How true! The Bible never says that salvation can be lost.

The idea is that a person could be on the path to salvation then veer away from that path thus forfeiting the salvation he would’ve received had he stayed on the path.
This is a totally different idea. Of course no one who isn't saved can remain unsaved.

From God’s perspective or from the perspective of the book of life such a person was never saved to begin with because they must endure to the end in order to be written in the book of life.
All verses that say that one must endure to the end to be saved are in the context of the 7 year Tribulation. So, at least, "the end" cannot refer to more than the 7 year Tribulation, which is when Christ returns in glory.

What you have stated is NEVER stated in the Bible. There is nothing about "enduring in order to be written in the book of life."

So when a person is said to have “lost his salvation” it doesn’t mean he had received eternal life then lost it. It means he had the hope of receiving eternal life and lost it.
Smoke n' mirrors. The words "lost his salvation" absolutely DOES mean losing what is possessed. If words have any meaning. If they don't, it doesn't matter what anyone says.

That’s all any of us have until we die or Christ returns is the hope of salvation.
Please be specific about what "any of us have".

It’s not certain until our time in this world is done.
More unclarity. What's not certain? Please be specific.

Hence we must abide in Christ and endure to the end in order to receive eternal life.
I'd love to see just ONE verse that actually says this. But I know there aren't any.

So we can’t actually receive eternal life until that’s been accomplished.
The Bible says otherwise. In fact, Jesus said those who believe HAVE (as in possess) eternal life. And the tense is PRESENT.

Would you be interested in some repentance regarding your views about now?

BNR... used to have me on "block" since he couldn't defend himself against my questions and points.

So I don't expect a response from him.

However, maybe someone else who disagrees with his post can ask him the questions I have asked here.
 
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