Why are some trying to fool us about chilioi(thousand) in the NT?

sovereigngrace

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Some of us are not arguing that there is no such thing as a figurative thousand in the Bible. Of course there is. Your post here clearly proves it, in the event one doesn't believe it to be so. Some of us are arguing that there are both literal and figurative examples of a thousand in the Bible. In post #96 I'm arguing that a figurative thousand is likely not meant in those passages I provided, well except for one, that being in Isaiah 30:17.

But when it comes to the most symbolic book in the Bible in a highly figurative chapter you want us to interpret it hyper-literally? I don't think it! No way! Especially when there is complete silence elsewhere in Scripture relating to this supposed future age. Where, outside of the highly symbolic setting of Revelation 20, did the Old Testament prophets, Jesus or the New Testament writers mention this supposed literal thousand years period? Nowhere!

Premil has only one string to their guitar and it is making a very monotonous sound: “what saith Revelation 20?” Amils hold to “what saith the Scripture?”
 
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DamianWarS

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Sadly, the only thing you are proving is your own theological bias and your total ignorance of the usage of the phrase "a thousand" in Scripture. Please address the questions below that premillennialists avoid like the plague.

Moses employs `a thousand' in Deuteronomy 7:9 saying, "Know therefore that the LORD thy God, he is God, the faithful God, which keepeth covenant and mercy with them that love him and keep his commandments to a thousand generations."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

1 Chronicles 16:13-17 also states, "O ye seed of Israel his servant, ye children of Jacob, his chosen ones. He is the LORD our God; his judgments are in all the earth. Be ye mindful always of his covenant; the word which he commanded to a thousand generations; Even of the covenant which he made with Abraham, and of his oath unto Isaac; And hath confirmed the same to Jacob for a law, and to Israel for an everlasting covenant."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

A thousand and ten thousand are used together in Psalm 91, saying, "Thou shalt not be afraid for the terror by night; nor for the arrow that flieth by day; Nor for the pestilence that walketh in darkness; nor for the destruction that wasteth at noonday. A thousand shall fall at thy side, and ten thousand at thy right hand; but it shall not come nigh thee" (vv 5-7).

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

A similar contrast between these two numbers or ideas is seen in Deuteronomy 32:30, where a rhetorical question is asked, "How should one chase a thousand, and two put ten thousand to flight, except their Rock had sold them, and the Lord had shut them up?"

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Joshua affirms, on the same vein, in chapter 23, "One man of you shall chase a thousand: for the LORD your God, he it is that fighteth for you, as he hath promised you" (v 10).

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Isaiah the prophet similarly declares in Isaiah 30:17, "one thousand shall flee at the rebuke of one."

This incidentally is the only passage in Scripture that makes mention of the actual number "one thousand," albeit, the term is used to impress a spiritual truth.

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Psalm 84:9-10 says, "Behold, O God our shield, and look upon the face of thine anointed. For a day in thy courts is better than a thousand. I had rather be a doorkeeper in the house of my God, than to dwell in the tents of wickedness."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

The figure a thousand is also employed in Psalm 50:10-11 saying, "For every beast of the forest is mine, and the cattle upon a thousand hills. I know all the fowls of the mountains: and the wild beasts of the field are mine."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Ecclesiastes 7:27-28 succinctly says, "one man among a thousand have I found."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

In the same vein, Job 33:23 declares, "If there be a messenger with him, an interpreter, one among a thousand, to shew unto man his uprightness."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

The distinct contrast between one and a thousand is again found in Job 9:2-3, where Job declares, "I know it is so of a truth: but how should man be just with God? If he will contend with him, he cannot answer him one of a thousand."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

The same idea is intended in Isaiah 60:21-22, where the prophet instructs, in relation to the New Earth, "Thy people also shall be all righteous: they shall inherit the land for ever, the branch of my planting, the work of my hands, that I may be glorified. A little one shall become a thousand, and a small one a strong nation: I the Lord will hasten it in his time."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Amos 5:1-4 says, "The virgin of Israel is fallen; she shall no more rise: she is forsaken upon her land; there is none to raise her up. For thus saith the Lord GOD; The city that went out by a thousand shall leave an hundred, and that which went forth by an hundred shall leave ten, to the house of Israel."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?
This is a heavily weighted hebrew respond. Even with the LXX the base language and concepts are hebrew not Greek. Your argument would be more compelling if you kept to Greek sources. And I don't think the issue is (at least with me) if "a thousand" can be figuratively used. I would agree it absolutely can be but this doesn't answer the question if Rev 20 is using it figuratively or not. If "a thousand years" is to be used literally then how would it be said? If "a thousand years" would be used figuratively then how would it be said? My point is more that they are the same ways and there is no Greek argument that uniquely points this one way or another. Context is the better argument.

I have no problems with the 1000 years meaning an undetermined amount of time but I fail to see how this is a premillennialists weak spot? It might be weak in terms of this specific argument but premillennialism itself is perfectly compatible with an undetermined amount of time it's just that if it were a literal 1000 years it would be particularly harmful to the preterist view. The whole argument to me is a little arbitrary and I'm perfectly willing to accept a 1000 years may not mean a 1000 years but so what?
 
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sovereigngrace

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This is a heavily weighted hebrew respond. Even with the LXX the base language and concepts are hebrew not Greek. Your argument would be more compelling if you kept to Greek sources. And I don't think the issue is (at least with me) if "a thousand" can be figuratively used. I would agree it absolutely can be but this doesn't answer the question if Rev 20 is using it figuratively or not. If "a thousand years" is to be used literally then how would it be said? If "a thousand years" would be used figuratively then how would it be said? My point is more that they are the same ways and there is no Greek argument that uniquely points this one way or another. Context is the better argument.

I have no problems with the 1000 years meaning an undetermined amount of time but I fail to see how this is a premillennialists weak spot? It might be weak in terms of this specific argument but premillennialism itself is perfectly compatible with an undetermined amount of time it's just that if it were a literal 1000 years it would be particularly harmful to the preterist view. The whole argument to me is a little arbitrary and I'm perfectly willing to accept a 1000 years may not mean a 1000 years but so what?

I am not a Preterist, even though I agree with Partial Preterists on some key points.

Where Premil falls apart (in my opinion) is when it comes to corroboration. It lacks any corroboration for all it fundamental tenets. It is not just that we have a brand new era suddenly foisted upon us 3 chapters before the end of Scripture, it is that it contradicts repeated climactic Scripture. It is that it also totally overrides the repeated teaching of Christ and the NT writers of two ages: “this age" and "the age to come." and another age to come after the age to come.” Both Premils and many Preterists must have three ages in their school of thought: “this age, the age to come and another age to come after the age to come.” Christ or none of the Apostles taught three ages (1) this age (2) millennial age, (3) age to come, but rather two.
 
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DamianWarS

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How could a thousand be meaning a plural of thousands or even an indeterminable amount in this example?
I'll ignore that all your examples are from a hebrew base but what determines it's literalness is the context not the syntax. I think at best all you can prove is "a thousand" can be used literally but not that it has to be.

I'm not really sure why this argument is so important to begin with as a premillennialist view should be perfectly happy with an undetermined amount of time and I think it is reasonable that the thousand in context may not be figurative given the genre of the text but more specially probably irresponsible to demand it to be one way or the other (again given the genre of the text)
 
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sovereigngrace

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This is a heavily weighted hebrew respond. Even with the LXX the base language and concepts are hebrew not Greek. Your argument would be more compelling if you kept to Greek sources. And I don't think the issue is (at least with me) if "a thousand" can be figuratively used. I would agree it absolutely can be but this doesn't answer the question if Rev 20 is using it figuratively or not. If "a thousand years" is to be used literally then how would it be said? If "a thousand years" would be used figuratively then how would it be said? My point is more that they are the same ways and there is no Greek argument that uniquely points this one way or another. Context is the better argument.

I have no problems with the 1000 years meaning an undetermined amount of time but I fail to see how this is a premillennialists weak spot? It might be weak in terms of this specific argument but premillennialism itself is perfectly compatible with an undetermined amount of time it's just that if it were a literal 1000 years it would be particularly harmful to the preterist view. The whole argument to me is a little arbitrary and I'm perfectly willing to accept a 1000 years may not mean a 1000 years but so what?

I presented this earlier, and will repost, as it addresses your post.

It is a fact that a thousand is used as much in Scripture to refer to approximate amounts as it is literal ones. The phrase “a thousand” is repeatedly used by the Holy Spirit to describe an indefinite figure/period. Like 10, 100 and 10,000, a thousand is commonly used as an even round figure to represent New Testament truths. Revelation 20, a chapter in the most symbolic book in the Bible, fits this pattern effortlessly. To obtain a broad understanding of the biblical usage of a thousand (even if for the sake of argument it meant 1,000) it is sensible to also study the number 10,000, as both are used in a similar figurative manner throughout Scripture. Involving both in the same study better illustrates the symbolic usage of the number 1,000. One soon discovers, the terms a thousand and ten thousand are employed many times in Scripture, in varying figurative senses, to describe large numbers or vast periods of time. The expressions are also commonly used to symbolically describe great pictures of immeasurable vastness. Notwithstanding, the term “one thousand” is only found once in Scripture in Isaiah 30:17.

There is a big difference between "a thousand" and 1,000 [one thousand] as you keep suggesting. The number 'one' is not included in the narrative, you must insert it in. Rather it is the more general thousand.

The figure a “thousand years” is employed ten times in Scripture – twice in the Old Testament and eight times in the New Testament. Significantly, of the eight mentions in the New, six are found in the same book of the Bible – Revelation. And of even greater note, all are disproportionately found together within the same chapter – the one currently under examination – Revelation 20. The two other New Testament references are found in the book of 2 Peter 3. In all the references, they indicate a large unspecific indefinite time period.

The two Old Testament passages are found in Psalm 90 and Ecclesiastes 6. And in both references the figure ‘a thousand years’ is used in a symbolic or figurative sense to denote an indefinite time-span. The first mention is in Psalm 90:3-5, where we read, “For a thousand years in thy sight are but as yesterday when it is past, and as a watch in the night. Thou carriest them away as with a flood; they are as a sleep: in the morning they are like grass which groweth up.”

This passage is often advanced by Premillennialists as proof of a literal physical future earthly millennium. Such people confidently advance it in such a way, as if it states, ‘For a thousand years in thy sight are but as tomorrow which is yet to come’. However, a careful reading of this inspired narrative reveals that it rather in stark contrast declares, “For a thousand years in thy sight are but as yesterday when it is past.” This passage therefore does not in the slightest allude to the future, never mind to some supposed impending earthly post Second Advent temporal period, but clearly to the past. This passage simply reveals profound truth about God and His infinite view of time rather than any misconceived earthly idea about a future millennium.

The thousand years are notably "as yesterday" rather than 'as tomorrow' or 'as a future period after Christ's Coming'.

A ‘thousand years’ is here used to describe God’s eternal view of time, which is in stark contrast to man’s limited understanding. This text teaches us that time is nothing with the Lord. God lives in eternity and His perspective of time far exceeds the finite mind of man. A ‘thousand years’ in this life is but a flash in the light of eternity. This reading goes on then to describe the solemn reality of the fleetingness of time and the brevity of life, saying, “we spend our years as a tale that is told” (v 9).

No wonder the Psalmist humbly prays to God, “teach us to number our days, that we may apply our hearts unto wisdom” (Psalm 90:12).

In Ecclesiastes 6:3,6-7 we find the second Old Testament reference to a thousand years. Here the term is simply used to represent an idea rather than outlining a specific measurable period of time. It reads, “If a man beget an hundred children, and live many years, so that the days of his years be many, and his soul be not filled with good, and also that he have no burial; I say, that an untimely birth is better than he…Yea, though he live a thousand years twice told, yet hath he seen no good: do not all go to one place? All the labour of man is for his mouth, and yet the appetite is not filled.”

This text is not remotely suggesting that a person could actually live to be a thousand years multiplied by two (or 2,000 years), such is, and has always been since the fall, a naturally impossibility. Rather, the text expresses a deep spiritual truth that even if someone lives to an incomprehensible age outside of Christ and hope, this life is completely meaningless. The term a 1000 multiplied by 2 therefore represents a hypothetically number, which spiritually impresses the important reality of the brevity and futility of carnal life. No man in Scripture, or since, has ever lived to the age of 2,000 years old.

Interestingly, the only place outside of Revelation 20 that the term a thousand years is mentioned in the New Testament is in 2 Peter 3. There, it is significantly used in an entirely figurative sense. In this chapter, Peter is specifically addressing the cynics who live in the last days that doubt the appearing of the Lord at His Second Advent and indeed harbour the foolish notion that He will not come at all. It is in this context that he addresses these misguided doubters, saying, “there shall come in the last days scoffers, walking after their own lusts, And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? For since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation” (2 Peter 3:3-4).

Peter, however, says in response, “For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water: Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished: But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men. But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance” (vv 5-9).

This familiar passage closely parallels the reading that we have just analysed in Psalm 90, indicating the same spiritual truth – that God is not limited to time. Again, notably, the contrast between the number one and a thousand is employed to simply represent an important divine truth.

Some theologians mistakenly attempt to use this passage to argue that one of God’s eternal days represents a literal thousand earthly years and that the commencement occurs at the time of Second Advent. However, they do err in their assumption, in that, this text simply indicates the briefness of time with God. 2 Peter 3 does not in anyway indicate a future earthly millennium kingdom anywhere in this reading. Peter is simply reminding such people that time is absolutely nothing to the King of glory. He ultimately sits outside of time in the realm of eternity. Time is but a blink to His infinite mind and to the eternal state.

Christ speaks of the unprepared state of many professing believers, who are exposed for their unpreparedness in Luke 12:45-46, saying, if that servant say in his heart, My lord delayeth his coming; and shall begin to beat the menservants and maidens, and to eat and drink, and to be drunken; The lord of that servant will come in a day when he looketh not for him, and at an hour when he is not aware, and will cut him in sunder, and will appoint him his portion with the unbelievers.”

It is in this context that he addresses these misguided doubters. Peter says in response, “beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day” (v 8).

Peter thus outlines two distinct yet contrasting time equations in this passage for the sole purpose of expressing a deep spiritual truth. Notwithstanding, and not surprisingly, the Premillennialist are swift to selectively advance the first aspect of this calculation as supposed evidence that one of God’s heavenly days represents a thousand literal temporal earthly years. However, whilst they unquestionably address, and happily literalise, the first part of this calculation they are understandably careful to side step the second part of the sum. Evidently, such is for the reason that it doesn’t fit their flawed hyper-literalist mode of interpretation.

Significantly, this reading in no place suggests the day of the Lord lasts a literal 1,000 years. The Premillennialist forces that into the reading. In the above passage it simply indicates “one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day” (v 8).

Those who take the aforementioned verses to support a future 1,000-year millennium of peace are faced with an insurmountable inconsistency when they examine the detail of the remainder of the chapter, and try and get it to fit their paradigm. 2 Peter 3:10-13 continues,the day of the Lord will come (or arrive) as thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall ‘go or pass away, or perish’ with a great noise, and the elements shall be ‘loosed by being set on fire’, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be ‘burned up utterly or consumed wholly’. Seeing then that all these things shall be ‘dissolved, loosened or broke up’ … Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be ‘dissolved, melted or loosed’, and the elements shall ‘melt by being set on fire’?” Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.”

This passage is so clear, final and all-consummating that one wonders how anyone could remotely imagine that creation could survive such an all-consummating fiery event. One also wonders how the Holy Spirit could have possibly advanced more explicit language to indicate the idea of total devastation. Whatever way you look at this chapter there is absolutely no allowance made or possibility for a future post-Second Coming millennial kingdom on this earth. Peter knows of no other coming of Christ other than that which eradicate the heavens, elements and the earth in one stupendous conflagration.

Anyone who contends that this passage supports the Premillennial theory that the day of the Lord lasts a literal 1,000 years after the second coming must surely see the absolute absurdity of their notion in the light of these last verses. This vivid account of complete devastation and utter destruction that occurs in this final day totally destroys any credence for the advancement of the Premillennial supposition. If this day lasts 1,000 years, as the Premillennialist passionately argues, then it is unquestionably a thousand years of awful and continuous judgment, which is in stark contradiction to the peaceful (albeit goat-infested) millennium that Premillennialists try to portray in their literature.
 
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TheNorwegian

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I have no idea why this is important, so I have no theological axe to grind. I will just comment on this from a purely linguistic point of view: It seems like OP makes a common mistake by using English language logic on Greek words. This is a common source for misunderstanding.

The word is definitely a plural: The ending oi is a Greek marker for plural, somewhat similar to the plural s in English: One car - two cars.

However, the word "thousand" is not a regular noun in English, in the sense that it does not take the plural marker: one thousand - two thousand. If the word was regular in English it would be one thousand - two thousands. In this way "thousand" is different from "car" as it has no plural marker in English. But in Greek there is this plural marker. That is why it actually say three thousands (plural) and five thousands (plural).

Whenever you see a Koine Greek word with a grammatical "oi" you should assume it is word in plural. Just like you would assume "cars" is a plural word if you see it in an English text
 
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DamianWarS

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I have no idea why this is important, so I have no theological axe to grind. I will just comment on this from a purely linguistic point of view: It seems like OP makes a common mistake by using English language logic on Greek words. This is a common source for misunderstanding.

The word is definitely a plural: The ending oi is a Greek marker for plural, somewhat similar to the plural s in English: One car - two cars.

However, the word "thousand" is not a regular noun in English, in the sense that it does not take the plural marker: one thousand - two thousand. If the word was regular in English it would be one thousand - two thousands. In this way "thousand" is different from "car" as it has no plural marker in English. But in Greek there is this plural marker. That is why it actually say three thousands (plural) and five thousands (plural).

Whenever you see a Koine Greek word with a grammatical "oi" you should assume it is word in plural. Just like you would assume "cars" is a plural word if you see it in an English text
I agree the OP is using a lot of English logic (and also I don't know why this matters) but in the Rev 20 context, which seems to be more the crux of the argument, the word in question is an adjective, not a noun and greek adjectives agree with their head nouns (always). so "adjective-THOUSAND-plural" is only a plural because it's head noun "noun-YEAR-plural" is a plural. In English our adjectives don't agree with their head nouns so in English "[a] thousand years" is the correct translation. there may be some discussion if including the article is warranted as it would envoke a singular use like it is a single thousand, this may be valid but it's a different discussion and nothing to do with the fact the adjective is a plural, including the article is also widely accepted among translations.

the Greek adjective "thousand-plural" is not the same as the English noun "thousands" and we shouldn't confuse the two.
 
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DavidPT

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I agree the OP is using a lot of English logic (and also I don't know why this matters) but in the Rev 20 context, which seems to be more the crux of the argument, the word in question is an adjective, not a noun and greek adjectives agree with their head nouns (always). so "adjective-THOUSAND-plural" is only a plural because it's head noun "noun-YEAR-plural" is a plural. In English our adjectives don't agree with their head nouns so in English "[a] thousand years" is the correct translation. there may be some discussion if including the article is warranted as it would envoke a singular use like it is a single thousand, this may be valid but it's a different discussion and nothing to do with the fact the adjective is a plural, including the article is also widely accepted among translations.

the Greek adjective "thousand-plural" is not the same as the English noun "thousands" and we shouldn't confuse the two.

“As for the time period of a thousand years, the Greek term used is chilioi, which is the plural of chilias. However, this is a case where we cannot simply use Strong's Concordance to prove the point. One must also know how Greek grammar works The term "thousand years" consists of an adjective ("thousand") and a noun ("years") which it is describing. Since the noun "years" is plural, Greek grammar demands that the adjective "thousand" must also be plural.
One Thousand Year Debate

Using what Greek grammer requires, according to the article above, that apparently means, in regards to the verse below---Since the noun "years" is plural, Greek grammar demands that the adjective "forty" must also be plural. Apparently then, a literal 40 years are not meant, but a plural of 40 is meant, just like a plural of thousand is meant if the noun following it is plural.

Hebrews 3:17 But with whom was he grieved forty years? was it not with them that had sinned, whose carcases fell in the wilderness?

Personally, I can't make sense of this logic. Maybe someone else can help make sense out of it for me?
 
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DamianWarS

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I presented this earlier, and will repost, as it addresses your post.

It is a fact that a thousand is used as much in Scripture to refer to approximate amounts as it is literal ones. The phrase “a thousand” is repeatedly used by the Holy Spirit to describe an indefinite figure/period. Like 10, 100 and 10,000, a thousand is commonly used as an even round figure to represent New Testament truths. Revelation 20, a chapter in the most symbolic book in the Bible, fits this pattern effortlessly. To obtain a broad understanding of the biblical usage of a thousand (even if for the sake of argument it meant 1,000) it is sensible to also study the number 10,000, as both are used in a similar figurative manner throughout Scripture. Involving both in the same study better illustrates the symbolic usage of the number 1,000. One soon discovers, the terms a thousand and ten thousand are employed many times in Scripture, in varying figurative senses, to describe large numbers or vast periods of time. The expressions are also commonly used to symbolically describe great pictures of immeasurable vastness. Notwithstanding, the term “one thousand” is only found once in Scripture in Isaiah 30:17.

There is a big difference between "a thousand" and 1,000 [one thousand] as you keep suggesting. The number 'one' is not included in the narrative, you must insert it in. Rather it is the more general thousand.

The figure a “thousand years” is employed ten times in Scripture – twice in the Old Testament and eight times in the New Testament. Significantly, of the eight mentions in the New, six are found in the same book of the Bible – Revelation. And of even greater note, all are disproportionately found together within the same chapter – the one currently under examination – Revelation 20. The two other New Testament references are found in the book of 2 Peter 3. In all the references, they indicate a large unspecific indefinite time period.

The two Old Testament passages are found in Psalm 90 and Ecclesiastes 6. And in both references the figure ‘a thousand years’ is used in a symbolic or figurative sense to denote an indefinite time-span. The first mention is in Psalm 90:3-5, where we read, “For a thousand years in thy sight are but as yesterday when it is past, and as a watch in the night. Thou carriest them away as with a flood; they are as a sleep: in the morning they are like grass which groweth up.”

This passage is often advanced by Premillennialists as proof of a literal physical future earthly millennium. Such people confidently advance it in such a way, as if it states, ‘For a thousand years in thy sight are but as tomorrow which is yet to come’. However, a careful reading of this inspired narrative reveals that it rather in stark contrast declares, “For a thousand years in thy sight are but as yesterday when it is past.” This passage therefore does not in the slightest allude to the future, never mind to some supposed impending earthly post Second Advent temporal period, but clearly to the past. This passage simply reveals profound truth about God and His infinite view of time rather than any misconceived earthly idea about a future millennium.

The thousand years are notably "as yesterday" rather than 'as tomorrow' or 'as a future period after Christ's Coming'.

A ‘thousand years’ is here used to describe God’s eternal view of time, which is in stark contrast to man’s limited understanding. This text teaches us that time is nothing with the Lord. God lives in eternity and His perspective of time far exceeds the finite mind of man. A ‘thousand years’ in this life is but a flash in the light of eternity. This reading goes on then to describe the solemn reality of the fleetingness of time and the brevity of life, saying, “we spend our years as a tale that is told” (v 9).

No wonder the Psalmist humbly prays to God, “teach us to number our days, that we may apply our hearts unto wisdom” (Psalm 90:12).

In Ecclesiastes 6:3,6-7 we find the second Old Testament reference to a thousand years. Here the term is simply used to represent an idea rather than outlining a specific measurable period of time. It reads, “If a man beget an hundred children, and live many years, so that the days of his years be many, and his soul be not filled with good, and also that he have no burial; I say, that an untimely birth is better than he…Yea, though he live a thousand years twice told, yet hath he seen no good: do not all go to one place? All the labour of man is for his mouth, and yet the appetite is not filled.”

This text is not remotely suggesting that a person could actually live to be a thousand years multiplied by two (or 2,000 years), such is, and has always been since the fall, a naturally impossibility. Rather, the text expresses a deep spiritual truth that even if someone lives to an incomprehensible age outside of Christ and hope, this life is completely meaningless. The term a 1000 multiplied by 2 therefore represents a hypothetically number, which spiritually impresses the important reality of the brevity and futility of carnal life. No man in Scripture, or since, has ever lived to the age of 2,000 years old.

Interestingly, the only place outside of Revelation 20 that the term a thousand years is mentioned in the New Testament is in 2 Peter 3. There, it is significantly used in an entirely figurative sense. In this chapter, Peter is specifically addressing the cynics who live in the last days that doubt the appearing of the Lord at His Second Advent and indeed harbour the foolish notion that He will not come at all. It is in this context that he addresses these misguided doubters, saying, “there shall come in the last days scoffers, walking after their own lusts, And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? For since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation” (2 Peter 3:3-4).

Peter, however, says in response, “For this they willingly are ignorant of, that by the word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water: Whereby the world that then was, being overflowed with water, perished: But the heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men. But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance” (vv 5-9).

This familiar passage closely parallels the reading that we have just analysed in Psalm 90, indicating the same spiritual truth – that God is not limited to time. Again, notably, the contrast between the number one and a thousand is employed to simply represent an important divine truth.

Some theologians mistakenly attempt to use this passage to argue that one of God’s eternal days represents a literal thousand earthly years and that the commencement occurs at the time of Second Advent. However, they do err in their assumption, in that, this text simply indicates the briefness of time with God. 2 Peter 3 does not in anyway indicate a future earthly millennium kingdom anywhere in this reading. Peter is simply reminding such people that time is absolutely nothing to the King of glory. He ultimately sits outside of time in the realm of eternity. Time is but a blink to His infinite mind and to the eternal state.

Christ speaks of the unprepared state of many professing believers, who are exposed for their unpreparedness in Luke 12:45-46, saying, if that servant say in his heart, My lord delayeth his coming; and shall begin to beat the menservants and maidens, and to eat and drink, and to be drunken; The lord of that servant will come in a day when he looketh not for him, and at an hour when he is not aware, and will cut him in sunder, and will appoint him his portion with the unbelievers.”

It is in this context that he addresses these misguided doubters. Peter says in response, “beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day” (v 8).

Peter thus outlines two distinct yet contrasting time equations in this passage for the sole purpose of expressing a deep spiritual truth. Notwithstanding, and not surprisingly, the Premillennialist are swift to selectively advance the first aspect of this calculation as supposed evidence that one of God’s heavenly days represents a thousand literal temporal earthly years. However, whilst they unquestionably address, and happily literalise, the first part of this calculation they are understandably careful to side step the second part of the sum. Evidently, such is for the reason that it doesn’t fit their flawed hyper-literalist mode of interpretation.

Significantly, this reading in no place suggests the day of the Lord lasts a literal 1,000 years. The Premillennialist forces that into the reading. In the above passage it simply indicates “one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day” (v 8).

Those who take the aforementioned verses to support a future 1,000-year millennium of peace are faced with an insurmountable inconsistency when they examine the detail of the remainder of the chapter, and try and get it to fit their paradigm. 2 Peter 3:10-13 continues,the day of the Lord will come (or arrive) as thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall ‘go or pass away, or perish’ with a great noise, and the elements shall be ‘loosed by being set on fire’, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be ‘burned up utterly or consumed wholly’. Seeing then that all these things shall be ‘dissolved, loosened or broke up’ … Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be ‘dissolved, melted or loosed’, and the elements shall ‘melt by being set on fire’?” Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.”

This passage is so clear, final and all-consummating that one wonders how anyone could remotely imagine that creation could survive such an all-consummating fiery event. One also wonders how the Holy Spirit could have possibly advanced more explicit language to indicate the idea of total devastation. Whatever way you look at this chapter there is absolutely no allowance made or possibility for a future post-Second Coming millennial kingdom on this earth. Peter knows of no other coming of Christ other than that which eradicate the heavens, elements and the earth in one stupendous conflagration.

Anyone who contends that this passage supports the Premillennial theory that the day of the Lord lasts a literal 1,000 years after the second coming must surely see the absolute absurdity of their notion in the light of these last verses. This vivid account of complete devastation and utter destruction that occurs in this final day totally destroys any credence for the advancement of the Premillennial supposition. If this day lasts 1,000 years, as the Premillennialist passionately argues, then it is unquestionably a thousand years of awful and continuous judgment, which is in stark contradiction to the peaceful (albeit goat-infested) millennium that Premillennialists try to portray in their literature.
you're basing the interpretation using a wider biblical context establishing it's normal for this to happen on whether it should be figuratively interpreted or literally. Sometimes it is both and I tend to disagree this passage can be definitively one way or the other. For example, Jesus tells us he can destroy the temple and raise it up in 3 days. This passage is in John 2:19 and because the passage tells us this, we know Jesus was speaking figuratively referring to his own body but while he was using the word "temple" figuratively he was still using the ordinal number literally. And this has come to the past, plus the text explains it however what also happens that the text doesn't explain is the literal temple was actually destroyed. Could the words of Christ have layers to them and perhaps the "3 days" becomes a figurative number for when the temple will rise again?

scripture has repeating patterns and surface meaning but also deep meanings. sometimes both are true at the same time. There is a lot of chiastic parallelisms and foreshadowing going on. For example in the creation account, there is a chiastic structure of day 1 with day 4, day 2 with day 5 and day 3 with day 6. Basically days 1-3 are organizing the days 4-6 are about filling those things. But it doesn't end, there is also parallelisms going on by God taking a formless dark void and speaking light into it making it a new creation as he does with the old self and into the new self under Christ, this also parallels the resurrection and baptism and it foreshadows Christ as Christ is the light sent by God into a dark and formless world. This is an extremely loaded passage in scripture and I've just unpacked a part of day 1.

I am not naive to think when God says "thousand years" it may be a figurative reference but it also may literal at the same time, it probably definitely has parallelisms and is probably foreshadowed and even beyond I'm sure it goes deeper. it's simply not a one-size-fits-all answer for me.
 
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DamianWarS

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Personally, I can't make sense of this logic. Maybe someone else can help make sense out of it for me?
all greek adjectives agree with case, number and gender with their head noun and these qualities have no meaning isolated on the adjective without their noun. we don't do this in English but adjectives innately are still connected to their nouns and are meaningless without them. For example, I may say "old car" old is the adjective and car is the noun so old describes car. if I isolate the adjective "old" a million things can come into my head that have nothing to do with a car and the meaning is somewhat lost. It is similar with this active agreement in Greek. A feminine plural adjective means nothing without the noun and it only has meaning on really the noun operating as one unit with the adjective. So it is "thousand(plural) years" and a plural abjective does not modify itself like there is more than one it only modifies the noun meaning the noun is more than one.

When adjective confuse me I replace them with simple adjectives like a colour because the systems that govern them are still the same. For example "green years". In greek "green" would be plural but to say "greens" carries some sort of isolated meaning or double green doesn't make sense. We should treat numbers no different, an adjective is an adjective and we can't treat them like nouns.
 
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Radagast

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I have no idea why this is important, so I have no theological axe to grind. I will just comment on this from a purely linguistic point of view: It seems like OP makes a common mistake by using English language logic on Greek words. This is a common source for misunderstanding.

The noun chilias (5505) can occur either in the singular or in the plural (only in the plural in the NT, but in the singular in the LXX).

The adjective chilioi (5507) can occur only in the plural. That is why, unusually, it is listed in the dictionary in the plural form (with -οι, as you point out): χίλιοι - Wiktionary

I agree with you on the common mistake of using English language logic on Greek words.
 
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Radagast

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“As for the time period of a thousand years, the Greek term used is chilioi, which is the plural of chilias.

No, the plural of the noun chilias (5505) would be chiliades, chiliadas, chiliadōn, or chiliasin, depending on case.

The adjective chilioi (5507) has no singular. It is always in the plural, because it is describing a plurality of things.
 
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DamianWarS

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assuming that maybe not everyone might fully grasp things such as(2 nouns thousand(normative, feminine, plural) year(genitive, neuter, plural)
To indicate a plural of "thousand" it would have to be a noun (not an adjective like in rev 20) and be next to the noun "years" in the genitive case. The genitive case is like a possessive and it carries the meaning "of years" so this would mean "thousands of-years". We see something similar in Rev 5:11 saying "thousands of thousands". This is the same word (strongs 5505) twice. they are both plural, they are both feminine but the first one is nomative (establishing the subject) and the second is genuine expressing "of thousands"

The text however has a plural of the adjective and so it only has meaning with it's noun which is "years". It only is a plural because "years" is plural. Otherwise it has no meaning as it pertains to "thousand" and in no way does it make it double or a bunch of thousands.
 
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Radagast

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To indicate a plural of "thousand" it would have to be a noun (not an adjective like in rev 20) and be next to the noun "years" in the genitive case. The genitive case is like a possessive and it carries the meaning "of years" so this would mean "thousands of-years". We see something similar in Rev 5:11 saying "thousands of thousands".

Let's look at Revelation 5:11, which uses the noun form: Then I looked, and I heard around the throne and the living creatures and the elders the voice of many angels, numbering myriads of myriads and thousands (chiliades) of thousands (chiliadōn).

The noun allows us to talk about a thousand things as a single group, so that we can have thousands of those. Or you could describe it as a "pure number."

In contrast, Revelation 14:20 uses the adjective form, which is used to count things (in the genitive, but only because that's what the preposition demands): And the winepress was trodden outside the city, and blood flowed from the winepress, as high as a horse's bridle, for a thousand (chiliōn) six hundred (hexakosiōn) stadia.

Here a specific number of things (stadia, a unit of distance) is being counted. There are 1600 of them.

In general, numbers in Revelation can be:
  • approximate, i.e. "roughly a thousand" or "a large number" (this is clearly the case in Revelation 5:11, because it's thousands of thousands as well as myriads of myriads)
  • exact and symbolic (this is usually the case with 7s and 12s and 40s)
  • exact and literal
Grammar alone doesn't tell us which option applies. Revelation 14:20 could have a literal 1600 or a symbolic 1600. It's probably symbolic, because 1600 is 40 multiplied by 40.

Likewise, for the "1000 years," you have to decide if it's "a large number of years," or if it's exact and symbolic, or if it's exact and literal.
 
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DamianWarS

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Grammar alone doesn't tell us which option applies
agreed so this shouldn't be a discussion about plural adjectives. but for some reason, it has been brought up and so I'm debunking it as having any meaning.
 
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BABerean2

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I believe James is addressing Jewish believers (as distinct from Gentile believers) by using that term.

Paul had to correct Peter for treating the Jewish believers differently than the Gentile believers. Many modern Christians are making the same error today.

In Romans 11 Paul uses the Olive Tree as a symbol of the New Covenant Church made up of faithful Israelites, and faithful Gentiles grafted together into the same Olive Tree. Paul provides no path to salvation outside of the Church in the chapter.

What did Paul say about racial differences in Galatians 3:16-29?

What did Paul say about genealogies in Titus 3:9?

.
 
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Gregory Thompson

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Now, can you answer a few questions?

Moses employs `a thousand' in Deuteronomy 7:9 saying, "Know therefore that the LORD thy God, he is God, the faithful God, which keepeth covenant and mercy with them that love him and keep his commandments to a thousand generations."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

1 Chronicles 16:13-17 also states, "O ye seed of Israel his servant, ye children of Jacob, his chosen ones. He is the LORD our God; his judgments are in all the earth. Be ye mindful always of his covenant; the word which he commanded to a thousand generations; Even of the covenant which he made with Abraham, and of his oath unto Isaac; And hath confirmed the same to Jacob for a law, and to Israel for an everlasting covenant."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

A thousand and ten thousand are used together in Psalm 91, saying, "Thou shalt not be afraid for the terror by night; nor for the arrow that flieth by day; Nor for the pestilence that walketh in darkness; nor for the destruction that wasteth at noonday. A thousand shall fall at thy side, and ten thousand at thy right hand; but it shall not come nigh thee" (vv 5-7).

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

A similar contrast between these two numbers or ideas is seen in Deuteronomy 32:30, where a rhetorical question is asked, "How should one chase a thousand, and two put ten thousand to flight, except their Rock had sold them, and the Lord had shut them up?"

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Joshua affirms, on the same vein, in chapter 23, "One man of you shall chase a thousand: for the LORD your God, he it is that fighteth for you, as he hath promised you" (v 10).

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Isaiah the prophet similarly declares in Isaiah 30:17, "one thousand shall flee at the rebuke of one."

This incidentally is the only passage in Scripture that makes mention of the actual number "one thousand," albeit, the term is used to impress a spiritual truth.

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Psalm 84:9-10 says, "Behold, O God our shield, and look upon the face of thine anointed. For a day in thy courts is better than a thousand. I had rather be a doorkeeper in the house of my God, than to dwell in the tents of wickedness."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

The figure a thousand is also employed in Psalm 50:10-11 saying, "For every beast of the forest is mine, and the cattle upon a thousand hills. I know all the fowls of the mountains: and the wild beasts of the field are mine."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Ecclesiastes 7:27-28 succinctly says, "one man among a thousand have I found."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

In the same vein, Job 33:23 declares, "If there be a messenger with him, an interpreter, one among a thousand, to shew unto man his uprightness."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

The distinct contrast between one and a thousand is again found in Job 9:2-3, where Job declares, "I know it is so of a truth: but how should man be just with God? If he will contend with him, he cannot answer him one of a thousand."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

The same idea is intended in Isaiah 60:21-22, where the prophet instructs, in relation to the New Earth, "Thy people also shall be all righteous: they shall inherit the land for ever, the branch of my planting, the work of my hands, that I may be glorified. A little one shall become a thousand, and a small one a strong nation: I the Lord will hasten it in his time."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Amos 5:1-4 says, "The virgin of Israel is fallen; she shall no more rise: she is forsaken upon her land; there is none to raise her up. For thus saith the Lord GOD; The city that went out by a thousand shall leave an hundred, and that which went forth by an hundred shall leave ten, to the house of Israel."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?
My question for this post, is why are passages with a hebrew manuscript being compared with passages with a greek manuscript?
 
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Gregory Thompson

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Some are trying to tell us that chilioi(5507) does not mean a thousand, but means a plural of thousands. Let's put that to the test, then.

dischilioi

from diV - dis 1364 and cilioi - chilioi 5507; two thousand:--two thousand

Mark 5:13 And forthwith Jesus gave them leave. And the unclean spirits went out, and entered into the swine: and the herd ran violently down a steep place into the sea, (they were about two thousand(dischilioi); ) and were choked in the sea.

trischilioi
tris-khil'-ee-oy
from triV - tris 5151 and cilioi - chilioi 5507; three times a thousand:--three thousand.


Acts 2:41 Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand(trischilioi) souls.


tetrakischilioi
tet-rak-is-khil'-ee-oy
from the multiplicative adverb of tessareV - tessares 5064 and cilioi - chilioi 5507; four times a thousand:--four thousand.


Matthew 16:10 Neither the seven loaves of the four thousand(tetrakischilioi), and how many baskets ye took up?

This should be plenty to make my point. It only stands to reason, that if dischilioi means 2000, trischilioi means 3000, tetrakischilioi means 4000, this obviously means chilioi must mean 1000.


To further prove this, consider the following.

If two in front of a thousand equals 2000, three in front of a thousand equals 3000, four in front of a thousand equals 4000, how much does a thousand equal?

If dis in front of chilioi equals 2000, tris in front of chilioi equals 3000, tetrakis in front of chilioi equals 4000, how much does chilioi equal?


This right here will prove beyond a shadow of a doubt as to whether someone is trying to fool others or not. Because if one answers the former correctly, and I'm sure one would, but then answers the latter differently, that's all the proof anyone needs to know without a doubt that this one is trying to fool others about what chilioi means in the NT.


Lu 14:31 Or <2228> what <5101> king <935>, going <4198> (5740) to make <4820> (5629) war <4171> against <1519> another <2087> king <935>, sitteth <2523> <0> not <3780> down <2523> (5660) first <4412>, and consulteth <1011> (5736) whether <1487> he be <2076> (5748) able <1415> with <1722> ten <1176> thousand <5505> to meet <528> (5658) him that cometh <2064> (5740) against <1909> him <846> with <3326> twenty <1501> thousand <5505>?

I think this is a good passage to examine in conventions in use of the word thousand. When it is more than ten thousand, it uses 5505 and a word before it to indicate how many ten thousands. In the gospels when there is a number of thousands below ten, a compound word is used. However, in Revelation a previously unused 5507 is used with numbers lower than ten, implying it might be like the ambiguous 3461 which is a mulititude of uncertain number.

Just because it sounds like 5505, we cannot assume it means the same thing.

However, it's usage in one of the peter letters may give the context for it being interpreted as 1000.

2Pe 3:8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand <5507> years, and a thousand <5507> years as one day.

Also, the passages in revelation that mimick the daniel prophecies in terms of the number of days also uses it as 1000.

So there's a lot of emphasis on it being so based on the old testament passages that are mimicked in the new testament using 5507.

But arguing over the meaning of words tends to be a slippery slope. So comparing scripture with scripture may be a wiser course of action.
 
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Radagast

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When it is more than ten thousand, it uses 5505 and a word before it to indicate how many ten thousands. In the gospels when there is a number of thousands below ten, a compound word is used. However, in Revelation a previously unused 5507 is used with numbers lower than ten, implying it might be like the ambiguous 3461 which is a mulititude of uncertain number.

No, it is simply that chilias (5505) is the noun and chilioi (5507) is the adjective.

So there's a lot of emphasis on it being so based on the old testament passages that are mimicked in the new testament using 5507.

If it really interests you, you can look up which words are used in the Greek Old Testament (LXX).
 
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Revelation 20:1 And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand.
2 And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him thousands of years,
3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousands of years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.
4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ thousands of years.
5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousands of years were finished. This is the first resurrection.
6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him thousands of years.
7 And when the thousands of years are expired, Satan shall be loosed out of his prison,
8 And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea.
9 And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them.


When understanding it this way I'm not seeing where it is rendering any of the texts nonsensical. That at least indicates it's possible that thousands of years can be meant. The question then is, what do thousands of years look like? For instance, 1987 years. Would that be thousands of years? That amount of years appear to be how long it's been since the time of the cross up until now, give or take a few years. If Christ were to return within 10 years or less, that would indicate there are less than 2000 years from the time of the cross until He returns. But if Christ were to return roughly 2000 years after the time of the cross, where many Amils place the beginning of the thousand years, why not use dischilioi to describe this period of time, then?
 
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