- May 19, 2018
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For me, its the words of Jesus that mean everything to me. His words are life.
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It does, you just refuse to read it literally.
I gave you several references where Paul said he was called to preach THE Gospel, and condemned those who taught a different one, and all you could come back with was, "I see that you avoid the KJV for that verse" and "you don't read the Bible literally."
One of the main problems today is with people who insist that ALL the Bible has to be read, and applied, literally. It was never meant to be so, and if you try, you will make it contradict itself."
What about Matthew 10:5?
Go not into the way of the Gentiles, or among the Gentiles. In this first mission, the apostles were ordered to preach to the Jews only, or to the children of the kingdom. (Matthew vii. 12.) See also Matthew xv. 24. and Acts xii. 46. (Witham) --- These twelve Jesus sent. In this mission of the apostles we may observe three things: first, whither Jesus sent them; secondly, what he ordered them to teach; and thirdly, what they were to do. As to the first, he tells them not to go in the way of the Gentiles, nor enter in the city of the Samaritans; but to go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. We must here take notice that this commandment, given by Christ to the apostles, of confining their preaching to the house of Israel, does not contradict one related in Matthew, (chap xxviii.) Go teach all nations, &c. We observe that these two commandments were given at two very different times; the first indeed, (the subject of our present annotation) the apostles received before the resurrection of Christ; the other after. It was necessary first to warn the Jews of the arrival of the Messias amongst them; otherwise they might have excused themselves for having rejected him, by saying, "He had sent his apostles to preach, no to them but to the Gentiles and Samaritans." (St. Jerome) --- St. Chrysostom assigns another reason why the apostles were sent first to preach in Judea, viz. that having withstood the opposition of one nation, they might be more prepared to hold out against the attacks, which they would no doubt have afterwards to sustain, in their endeavours to convert the whole world. (St. John Chrysostom) --- He forbids them to preach to the Gentiles, because it was proper that the word of God should first be announced to the Jews, children of the kingdom. See Acts chap. xiii, ver. 42. (Menochius)
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Yes, you are correct.
So you do agree that not every word that Jesus said is life during this time, even though it was life during the period of the 4 gospels.
I have explained to you that Peter, James and John never preached that Christ died for the sins of Israel, and rose again on the 3rd day as a sign that they are justified from all their sins.
Neither did they ever preached to Israel Romans 4:5, that they are to cease from works, to be justified.
I have shown you various scripture passages from Acts to show what they actually preached to Israel.
Up till now, you have failed to produce a single verse that stated that the 12 preached 1 Cor 15:1-4, you are just assuming they must have done that, because you have a doctrine that "There is only ONE gospel" that was preached.
Romans 4:5 hadn't been written then.
As I said, we don't have details of everything they preached - that doesn't mean that they didn't, or that they preached a "different" Gospel.
So?
That doesn't mean that they were the ONLY things that they ever preached. We don't have any evidence that they taught believers the Lord's prayer, for example; doesn't mean that they didn't.
What does it matter anyway?
I don't see what the problem is.
Your argument is from silence, that is the problem.
I have presented to you scripture to show what they actually preached.
Again, that is because you began with the doctrine that there is only one gospel. That doctrine is your axiom.
You subscribed to covenant theology
It is gravely erroneous, and indeed condemned by the Apostle Paul himself, to regard his works in isolation apart from the four canonical Gospels and the epistles of the other Apostles, as the extent of the Gospel as such.
Are you contradicting yourself?
So we are not to preach the good news to the Gentiles now too, since you believe Matthew 10:5 is for all time?
Paul himself stated in vs 6 clearly that his gospel is different from the other apostles,
they added nothing to him.
Like I said, if there are two Gospels; what are they?
Which is correct, the one given by Jesus to his disciples or the one preached by Paul which, you say, is different?
Why didn't the apostles condemn him for preaching a different Gospel, and why did Paul himself, not me, say that there is only ONE?
I already explained to you the difference between the Gospel of the kingdom, which is of the circumcision, and the gospel of grace, which is of the uncircumcision in previous posts.
If you don't accept the explaination, I am fine, but stop asking the same questions all the time.
Obviously I must have missed the explanation, or I wouldn't have asked again.
I do reject that there are two Gospels.
THE Gospel is the Good News about Jesus Christ, the Son of God, Mark 1:1, John 20:31. This Gospel about Jesus - his birth, ministry, death and resurrection - was prophesied in the OT, Romans 1:1-4, and the Gospel writers often showed how Jesus fulfilled prophecy. Jesus chose 12 men to be his disciples and, after the resurrection, charged 11 of them with the task of teaching others about him and making disciples. After receiving the Holy Spirit at Pentecost, Peter and the others boldly preached the Good News about Jesus and urged people to repent of their sins. They performed miracles, proving that what they said was true, and many accepted the Good News that they preached.
Saul of Tarsus, who was a Pharisee and persecuted the church for what they preached, later met the risen Christ, was convicted and converted and spent his life preaching the Gospel; the Good News about Jesus.
There were many who opposed and attacked the Gospel and that time, and those who tried to change it, insist there were "other" Gospels or add to it. Paul condemned them, 2 Corinthians 11:4, Galatians 2:7.
Salvation for all of us now is based on 1 Cor 15:1-4.
You believe Christ died for your sins and rose again on the 3rd day. Under the gospel of grace, we get salvation the moment we believed that.
But that is not what John 3:16 and Acts 4:12 was saying. Salvation for the Jews then was the need to believe that Jesus is their promised Messiah, they have to be water baptized and continue in the Law of Moses.
Under the gospel of the kingdom, which was valid then, Jews are only saved at the end, when they are finally ushered into their promised Kingdom,
Acts 3:19-20
Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord.
1 Peter 1
3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,
4 To an inheritance incorruptible, and undefiled, and that fadeth not away, reserved in heaven for you,
5 Who are kept by the power of God through faith unto salvation ready to be revealed in the last time.
9 Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls.
Salvation is through JESUS alone, just as it is for Gentiles. There is no indication that Jesus told his disciples, or anyone else, to believe in him, receive eternal life, be born again - and continue to keep the Jewish law.
I think dozens, if not hundreds, of Messianic Jews who have faith in Jesus and eternal life NOW would disagree with that.