THE FALSE TEACHINGS OF UNIVERSALISM - BEWARE!

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ClementofA

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The post you were quoting from shows you misapplied the scripture by leaving out context. Your argument was that LAMENATION 3 was to the unrepentant wicked but the cotext provided in the post you were quoting from demonstrated that LAMENTATIONS 3 is to REPETNANT ISRAEL and reconciliation to God by ISRAELS repentance and returning to God.

Still spreading misinformation.

You claim that LAMENTATION 3 is in reference to the reconciliation of God to the unrepentant wicked.


False & wrong! My claim is only in regard to the verses i posted & what i said about them, not the whole chapter.

I believe this was very clearly refuted by showing the context of LAMENTATION 3 you ignired which shows in the scriptures that the scriptures are talking about REPENTANT ISRAEL not the unrepentant wicked.

I didn't ignore them. I said they're irrelevant. And you've failed to prove that they can erase verses 31-33 from the KJV Bible or change them to speak of Israel instead of what they say:

Lam.3:31For the Lord will NOT cast off FOR EVER:
32But though he cause grief, yet will he have compassion according to the multitude of his mercies.
33For he doth not afflict willingly nor grieve THE CHILDREN OF MEN. (KJV, emphasis mine)

Children of men is not Israel!

Why also did you leave this next paragraph out of your reply & not address it, (which destroys your arguments re Eccl.1:13; Lam.3:31-33, etc:

If i write a book titled the "salvation of humanity" and it has one sentence stating "the demons will be saved", you err to argue that the context is about the "salvation of humanity" not "demons will be saved", so the statement that "demons will be saved" is really not having any "application" to "demons will be saved", but is actually about the "salvation of humanity".

That's exactly what you've done with several passages i've quoted.

You are committing the error of - using context as a pretext to not believe the plain text - (of what is written). For example, you deny Eccl.1:13 is speaking about "men" in general and insist it only regards Israel or believers:

Ecc 1:13 I applied my heart to inquiring and exploring by wisdom concerning all that is done under the heavens: it is an experience of evil Elohim has given to the sons of humanity to humble them by it.

God speaks of "the sons of humanity", not believers only as you would change His word. Shouldn't changing His word worry you? I think i'll take God at His word, instead of your alteration of it:

Ecc 1:13 I applied my heart to inquiring and exploring by wisdom concerning all that is done under the heavens: it is an experience of evil Elohim has given to the sons of humanity to humble them by it.

Clearly everything has a positive purpose to it: "to humble them" (Eccl.1:13). Whether it was flooding the earth that killed those outside the ark or whatever "evil" occurs to men, God has given it to "humble them". Including those who will go to Gehenna (Mk.9:43-49), the Valley of Hinnom, which is on earth & "under the heavens".

We know "hell" (Hades/Sheol, Tartarus, Gehenna, the lake of fire, the abyss, etc) is also "under the heavens". Evidently the humans there, if any, are for their own good, being humbled too. See Eccl.1:13 above.

You can either believe some human opinion, like that of John Gill that you posted, or you can choose to believe Lam.3:31-33 above. Your choice. Up to you.

And the context doesn't change this:

Lam.3:31For the Lord will NOT cast off FOR EVER:
32But though he cause grief, yet will he have compassion according to the multitude of his mercies.
33For he doth not afflict willingly nor grieve THE CHILDREN OF MEN. (KJV, emphasis mine)

I have shown you already the context you left out of these scriptures that prove that LAMENTATIONS is in regards to ISRAEL'S (God's peoples) punishments for sin.

So what? Lam,3:31-33 KJV - EXPANDS upon that and goes further to include "men" in general. Or do you not believe what is in front of your eyes? Or do you think God cannot speak of both Israel and "men" in general in the same context? That would be limiting God, wouldn't it? Would you want to limit God? Should that not worry you?

If i write a book titled the "salvation of humanity" and it has one sentence stating "the demons will be saved", you err to argue that the context is about the "salvation of humanity" not "demons will be saved", so the statement that "demons will be saved" is really not having any "application" to "demons will be saved", but is actually about the "salvation of humanity".

That's exactly what you've done with several passages i've quoted.


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LoveGodsWord

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LoveGodsWord said: The post you were quoting from shows you misapplied the scripture by leaving out context. Your argument was that LAMENATION 3 was to the unrepentant wicked but the cotext provided in the post you were quoting from demonstrated that LAMENTATIONS 3 is to REPETNANT ISRAEL and reconciliation to God by ISRAELS repentance and returning to God.
Your response here...
Still spreading misinformation.
Nope your just repeating the same old cut and paste content already addressed many times now. Your claims were proven false earlier as you are leaving out the scripture contexts in your interpretation of LAMENTATION 3. I only supplied the context you left out of your claims that LAMENTATIONS 3 is talking about God reconciling the unrepentant wicked when it was talking about repentant ISRAEL being reconcilled to God. *LAMENTATIONS 3:26-42. You do know that Lamentations is over the destruction of Jerusalem by Babylon right?
False & wrong! My claim is only in regard to the verses i posted & what i said about them, not the whole chapter.
Yes this was the problem. You were cherry picking scripture taken out of context to claim that LAMENTATIONS 3 is talking about God reconcilling the unrepentant wicked after the 2nd coming. When you add the context back from the scriptures and shrrounding chapters it proves your interpretation of these scriptures is in error as the chapter is talking about ISRAEL that departed God, the destruction of Jerusalem and ISRAEL in affliction and repentance returning back to God and being reconcilled to God through repentance. It is not talking about the unrepentant wicked.
I didn't ignore them. I said they're irrelevant. And you've failed to prove that they can erase verses 31-33 from the KJV Bible or change them to speak of Israel instead of what they say:
Context matters dear friend in scripture interpretation. Your claim by not consideration context is that the scriptures are in reference to the unrepentant wicked being reconciled to God. This is shown when the context and rest of the scriptures you have not considered are added which show that it is repentant ISRAEL being reconciled to God not the unrepentant wicked. Your spreading misinformation and are in error by not considering scripture context. This has been shown not only here but all to the majority of the scriptures you have used to try and support the teachings of "Universalism" as well as your understanding of the Greek. The scriptures do not say what you are claiming they are. You have ignored context again that has lead to you to misapplication of the scriptures. Context matters dear friend. You not considering it has led you to an misinterpretatin of scripture and spreading false information. I am sorry we will have to agree to disagree. There is no reconcilliation to God without repentance and turning back to God. Why do you think Jerusalem was destroyed? The bible does not teach what you or Universalism is trying to teach here. Context matters and you do not provide any in your application of scripture.

Hope this is helpful
 
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ClementofA

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The teaching of Universalism leads people to believe they can live like the devil, everything will be ok because I will get a second coming after JESUS returns.

If someone calling themselves a "Christian" wants to live like the devil, are they not going to be able to find excuses for it, no matter what their theology, and are probably not saved anyway?

For example if a young church goer of the SDA, which is your religion, wishes to "live like the devil", he might make the excuse that after he sins he can get right with God later in life.

Or, to use another example, a RC Mafiosa might reason within herself that after she murders someone she can later go for confession to a priest & be forgiven.

OTOH is it true that if anyone will do the will of God, he shall know the truth & no false teaching will be able to hinder him from knowing the truth:

If anyone desires to do His will, he will know concerning the teaching, whether it is from God, or I speak from Myself. (Jn.7:17).

If that is so, are you wasting your time here?


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"You are fully, completely, and thoroughly adored by God."
 
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LoveGodsWord

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If someone calling themselves a "Christian" wants to live like the devil, are they not going to be able to find excuses for it, no matter what their theology, and are probably not saved anyway?
Indeed. Universalism could be one excuse. The teaching of Universalism leads people to believe they can live like the devil today, because everything will be ok because the unrepentant wicked will get a second chance after second coming after JESUS. There is no second chances at the second coming as His reward is with him * REVELATION 22:12 and the reward of the unrepentant wicked after the second coming is the second death *REVELATION 21:8 which is the wages of unrepentant sin to all those who reject the gift of God's dear son *ROMANS 6:23; HEBREWS 10:26-31.

May you receive God's Word and be blessed dear friend.
 
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ClementofA

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Indeed. Universalism could be one excuse. The teaching of Universalism leads people to believe they can live like the devil today, because everything will be ok because the unrepentant wicked will get a second chance after second coming after JESUS.

You're just parroting your post i just responded to as if you hadn't even read my reply AND you didn't answer the questions or address the issue:

The teaching of Universalism leads people to believe they can live like the devil, everything will be ok because I will get a second coming after JESUS returns.

If someone calling themselves a "Christian" wants to live like the devil, are they not going to be able to find excuses for it, no matter what their theology, and are probably not saved anyway?

For example if a young church goer of the SDA, which is your religion, wishes to "live like the devil", he might make the excuse that after he sins he can get right with God later in life.

Or, to use another example, a RC Mafiosa might reason within herself that after she murders someone she can later go for confession to a priest & be forgiven.

OTOH is it true that if anyone will do the will of God, he shall know the truth & no false teaching will be able to hinder him from knowing the truth:

If anyone desires to do His will, he will know concerning the teaching, whether it is from God, or I speak from Myself. (Jn.7:17).

If that is so, are you wasting your time here?


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75 UR verses + 100 proofs + 150 reasons etc:
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213 Questions Without Answers:
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https://www.tentmaker.org/books/hope_beyond_hell.pdf

"You are fully, completely, and thoroughly adored by God."
 
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LoveGodsWord

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You're just parroting your post i just responded to as if you hadn't even read my reply AND you didn't answer the questions or address the issue:

If someone calling themselves a "Christian" wants to live like the devil, are they not going to be able to find excuses for it, no matter what their theology, and are probably not saved anyway?

For example if a young church goer of the SDA, which is your religion, wishes to "live like the devil", he might make the excuse that after he sins he can get right with God later in life.

Or, to use another example, a RC Mafiosa might reason within herself that after she murders someone she can later go for confession to a priest & be forgiven.

OTOH is it true that if anyone will do the will of God, he shall know the truth & no false teaching will be able to hinder him from knowing the truth:

If anyone desires to do His will, he will know concerning the teaching, whether it is from God, or I speak from Myself. (Jn.7:17).

If that is so, are you wasting your time here?

Your just repeating yourself again dear friend. This was already addressed in the previous post.
 
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a-lily-of-peace

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"You are fully, completely, and thoroughly adored by God."

adore (v.)

late 14c., aouren, "to worship, pay divine honors to, bow down before," from Old French aorer "to adore, worship, praise" (10c., later adorer), from Latin adorare "speak to formally, beseech, entreat, ask in prayer," in Late Latin "to worship," literally "to call to," from ad"to" (see ad-) + ōrare "speak formally, pray" (see orator). Meaning "to honor very highly" is attested from 1590s; weakened sense of "to be very fond of" emerged by 1880s. Related: Adored; adoring.

adore | Origin and meaning of adore by Online Etymology Dictionary

(not saying that’s what you meant but that’s a strange way to say we are loved)
 
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LoveGodsWord

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NONSENSE !

Hello dear Fine nice to see you. What nonsense are you referring to dear friend? Does "UNIVERALISM" not teach that the UNREPENTANT WICKED will get a second chance from the gambling lady of second chances after the second coming? If this is the case why would this not be an excuse for people to turn away from God and their sins today? The only nonsense is in believing that the unrepentant wicked get a second chance after the second coming when there reward is the second death and no second chances for rejecting the gift of Gods' dear son and counting the blood of the covenant an unholy thing *REVELATION 21:8; HEBREWS 10:26-31; 1 THESSALONIANS 1:9.
 
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ClementofA

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adore (v.)

late 14c., aouren, "to worship, pay divine honors to, bow down before," from Old French aorer "to adore, worship, praise" (10c., later adorer), from Latin adorare "speak to formally, beseech, entreat, ask in prayer," in Late Latin "to worship," literally "to call to," from ad"to" (see ad-) + ōrare "speak formally, pray" (see orator). Meaning "to honor very highly" is attested from 1590s; weakened sense of "to be very fond of" emerged by 1880s. Related: Adored; adoring.

adore | Origin and meaning of adore by Online Etymology Dictionary

(not saying that’s what you meant but that’s a strange way to say we are loved)

I usually refer to a standard English dictionary, especially Websters:

"3: to be very fond of

...Synonyms


Definition of ADORE
 
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ClementofA

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Your just repeating yourself again dear friend. This was already addressed in the previous post.

Wrong, as usual. I didn't "just repeat myself". I also added new info re what exactly you have not answered:

Indeed. Universalism could be one excuse. The teaching of Universalism leads people to believe they can live like the devil today, because everything will be ok because the unrepentant wicked will get a second chance after second coming after JESUS.

You're just parroting your post i just responded to as if you hadn't even read my reply AND you didn't answer the questions or address the issue:

The teaching of Universalism leads people to believe they can live like the devil, everything will be ok because I will get a second coming after JESUS returns.

If someone calling themselves a "Christian" wants to live like the devil, are they not going to be able to find excuses for it, no matter what their theology, and are probably not saved anyway?

For example if a young church goer of the SDA, which is your religion, wishes to "live like the devil", he might make the excuse that after he sins he can get right with God later in life.

Or, to use another example, a RC Mafiosa might reason within herself that after she murders someone she can later go for confession to a priest & be forgiven.

OTOH is it true that if anyone will do the will of God, he shall know the truth & no false teaching will be able to hinder him from knowing the truth:

If anyone desires to do His will, he will know concerning the teaching, whether it is from God, or I speak from Myself. (Jn.7:17).

If that is so, are you wasting your time here?


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Unique Proof For Christian, Biblical Universalism

75 UR verses + 100 proofs + 150 reasons etc:
Web Online Help

213 Questions Without Answers:
Questions Without Answers

https://www.tentmaker.org/books/hope_beyond_hell.pdf

"You are fully, completely, and thoroughly adored by God."
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Wrong, as usual. I didn't "just repeat myself". I also added new info re what exactly you have not answered:

You're just parroting your post i just responded to as if you hadn't even read my reply AND you didn't answer the questions or address the issue:

If someone calling themselves a "Christian" wants to live like the devil, are they not going to be able to find excuses for it, no matter what their theology, and are probably not saved anyway?

For example if a young church goer of the SDA, which is your religion, wishes to "live like the devil", he might make the excuse that after he sins he can get right with God later in life.

Or, to use another example, a RC Mafiosa might reason within herself that after she murders someone she can later go for confession to a priest & be forgiven.

OTOH is it true that if anyone will do the will of God, he shall know the truth & no false teaching will be able to hinder him from knowing the truth:

If anyone desires to do His will, he will know concerning the teaching, whether it is from God, or I speak from Myself. (Jn.7:17).

If that is so, are you wasting your time here?

Nonsense dear friend. You have reposted the same post that has already been addressed how many times now? As posted earlier, the teaching of Universalism leads people to believe they can live like the devil today, because everything will be ok because the unrepentant wicked will get a second chance after the second coming of JESUS. Is this not what UNIVERSALISM teaches? The teachings of UNIVERSALISM are not biblical. There is no second chances at the second coming as His reward is with him * REVELATION 22:12 and the reward of the unrepentant wicked after the second coming is the second death *REVELATION 21:8 which is the wages of unrepentant sin to all those who reject the gift of God's dear son *ROMANS 6:23; HEBREWS 10:26-31.
 
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a-lily-of-peace

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I usually refer to a standard English dictionary, especially Websters:

"3: to be very fond of"

...Synonyms


Definition of ADORE
Even so, if you’re going to say “thoroughly and completely” you should be aware that using the thorough and complete definition from Webster’s gives this:

adore
verb

\ ə-ˈdȯr \
adored; adoring
Definition of adore

transitive verb

1: to worship or honor as a deity or as divine
2: to regard with loving admiration and devotion
3: to be very fond of
 
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ClementofA

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Still waiting for your answer to this question:

OTOH is it true that if anyone will do the will of God, he shall know the truth & no false teaching will be able to hinder him from knowing the truth:

If anyone desires to do His will, he will know concerning the teaching, whether it is from God, or I speak from Myself. (Jn.7:17).

If that is so, are you wasting your time here?
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Still waiting for your answer to this question:

OTOH is it true that if anyone will do the will of God, he shall know the truth & no false teaching will be able to hinder him from knowing the truth:

If anyone desires to do His will, he will know concerning the teaching, whether it is from God, or I speak from Myself. (Jn.7:17).

If that is so, are you wasting your time here?

God's promises are conditional on believing and following his Word (scripture support here).
 
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ClementofA

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Even so, if you’re going to say “thoroughly and completely” you should be aware that using the thorough and complete definition from Webster’s gives this:

adore
verb

\ ə-ˈdȯr \
adored; adoring
Definition of adore

transitive verb

1: to worship or honor as a deity or as divine
2: to regard with loving admiration and devotion
3: to be very fond of

First, i didn't say it, the quote did.

Secondly, the dictionary definition you quote says nothing about “thoroughly and completely”.

Thirdly, obviously the definition that applies to my quote is # 3. So the other definitions are irrelevant. Capiche?
 
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ClementofA

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God's promises are conditional on believing and following his Word (scripture support here).

I don't know what that has to do with my post. Let's see if you can answer this question with a yes or no:

Is it true that if anyone will do the will of God, he shall know the truth & no false teaching will be able to hinder him from knowing the truth.
 
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LoveGodsWord

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Webster's Dictionary 1828

ADO'RE
, verb transitive [Latin adoro. In Heb. to honor, reverence or glorify to adorn; to be magnificent or glorious, to magnify, to glorify. This word is usually referred to the Latin ad orare, to carry to one's mouth; ad and os, oris; as, in order to kiss one's hand, the hand is carried to one's mouth. See Calmet, ad verbum, who cites, in confirmation of this opinion, the ancient practice of kissing the hand. See Job 31:27. 1 Kings 19:18. Psalms 2:12. Genesis 45:15 . Ainsworth supposes the word to be a compound of ad and oro, to pray; and if the word is compound, as I suspect, this opinion is most probably correct.]

1. To worship with profound reverence; to address with exalted thoughts, by prayer and thanksgiving; to pay divine honors to; to honor as a god or as divine.

2. To love in the highest degree; to regard with the utmost esteem, affection and respect; as, the people adore their prince.
 
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I don't know what that has to do with my post. Let's see if you can answer this question with a yes or no:

Is it true that if anyone will do the will of God, he shall know the truth & no false teaching will be able to hinder him from knowing the truth.

God's promises are conditional on believing and following God's Word. No one receives God's promises if they do not believe and follow his Word (scripture support here). What is it you did not understand?
 
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