20 major reasons to reject the Premillennial doctrine

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DavidPT

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Who was the first resurrection, who was the first to conquer the grave? It is not hard to work out.


As to the first resurrection, I simply see it as a type of a resurrection, and that that type of resurrection always precedes the other type of resurrection, thus why it is also called the first resurrection. There are only 2 types of resurrections in total.

The 2 types of resurrections. 1) the resurrection of the righteous just. 2) the resurrection of the unrighteous damned.

Which resurrection did Christ rise in? 1) of course. Did any resurrection of the unrighteous damned precede His resurrection? No.

The dead in Christ that rise first, which type of resurrection do they rise in? 1) or 2)? 1) of course. Do any resurrections of the unrighteous damned precede their resurrections? No. There you go then. Not only is the first resurrection a type of resurrection like I already indicated, and since there are only 2 types of resurrections in total, the first resurrection always precedes the other type of resurrection in every instance.
 
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keras

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Here is the main reason to reject the pre[trib rapture:
This is a question for those who believe in a pre-trib rapture to heaven of the Church; they need to carefully consider:
If the Church is taken to heaven while Jewish Israel remain on earth, to go through the Great Tribulation, how is it that God’s holy people are seen in the holy Land before the GT?

Isaiah 66:15-21 The Lord is coming in fire, He will destroy the ungodly peoples.......... I am coming to gather people from all the nations, they will declare My glory to the world. They will come on every means of transport to My holy City. Psalms 107

Ezekiel 34:11-16..After the Lord’s Day of wrath....I shall search for My sheep and gather them from out of the nations into their own country.... John 10:16

Isaiah 35:1-10 The Land will be regenerated ....and a highway will appear, that the ransomed of the Lord shall walk on as they come to Zion, with gladness and joy.

Romans 9:24-26 We Christians are the objects of God’s mercy, who He has called out of the Jew and Gentile peoples....In the same place as the ancient Israelites were rejected; you will be called the children of the Living God.


Then; later, when the leader of the rest of the world takes dictatorial control:

Daniel 7:25 ...the holy people will be delivered into his power, [the Anti-Christ] for 3½ years.
Revelation 13:5-7 The beast, [the Anti-Christ] is given authority over the world for 42 months and he wages war on God’s people, defeating them.

Revelation 12:17 Furiously, the dragon, [the Anti-Christ] persecutes those who keep the Commandments and who witness to Jesus.

The pre-trib rapture doctrine has the current inhabitants of Israel, who are in apostasy and rejection of Jesus now; passing through the final 3½ year period before Jesus Returns and finally accepting Christianity, as per Zechariah 12:9-14

But the prophesies above, plainly state that it will be the faithful people of God, who are Christian people from every tribe, race, nation and language, who are present in the holy Land during the seven years of Daniel 9:27.

Also it is God’s faithful Christian people who are there when Gog and his horde attack them and the Lord protects them. Ezekiel 38:8-12



This truth is confirmed by many prophesies, especially Jeremiah 12:14=16:

Jeremiah 12:14-16 These are the Words of the Lord: I am against all those evil neighbours who have encroached onto the Land that My Israelite people will inherit. Take note; I will pluck them out from where they are now and also I will pluck out the House of Judah as well. After I have removed them, I will Return and have compassion on them, bringing them back to their heritage, if they will diligently learn the way of My people, to only swear by My Name: the Living God. But if they refuse, then I will completely remove and destroy them. This Bible passage is extremely informative, it gives the Lord’s plans for three groups of people:

1/ The evil neighbours; The Islamic nations and entities surrounding Israel. Soon to be cleared out of the entire Middle East region by the terrible Day of the Lord’s wrath by fire from the sun. Psalms 83:1-18, Isaiah 30:25-30, Amos 1:1-11, 2:1-5

2/ The House of Judah, the Jewish people, currently inhabiting a part of the holy Land. The same fate as the neighbours, but a remnant will be saved. Isaiah 6:11-13, Zechariah 13:8-9, Romans 9:27

3/ My people; the true Israelites of God, every Christian believer; individuals from every tribe, race, nation and language. Revelation 5:9-10, 1 Peter 2:9-10

The story described here, is clear and concise: The Lord is about to solve all the Middle East problems, to a similar degree as how He reset civilization in Noah’s time. All the holy land will be depopulated, Jeremiah 10:18, excepting a small remnant of Messianic Jews who will shelter in bunkers in Jerusalem. Isaiah 29:1-4, Romans 9:27

This clearance will allow the gathering and settling of His faithful Christian people into their heritage where they will, at last be the people He always wanted there; a people who will be His witnesses; Isaiah 43:10, John 15:27, and display His Light to the nations. Isaiah 49:8, Matthew 5:14-16

Our Christian heritage, in all of the holy Land and our destiny. Ezekiel 39:25-29
 
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BABerean2

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As to the first resurrection, I simply see it as a type of a resurrection, and that that type of resurrection always precedes the other type of resurrection, thus why it is also called the first resurrection. There are only 2 types of resurrections in total.

The 2 types of resurrections. 1) the resurrection of the righteous just. 2) the resurrection of the unrighteous damned.

Which resurrection did Christ rise in? 1) of course. Did any resurrection of the unrighteous damned precede His resurrection? No.

The dead in Christ that rise first, which type of resurrection do they rise in? 1) or 2)? 1) of course. Do any resurrections of the unrighteous damned precede their resurrections? No. There you go then. Not only is the first resurrection a type of resurrection like I already indicated, and since there are only 2 types of resurrections in total, the first resurrection always precedes the other type of resurrection in every instance.

If you passed from death to life, what would that event be called?

John 5:24

(CJB) Yes, indeed! I tell you that whoever hears what I am saying and trusts the One who sent me has eternal life -- that is, he will not come up for judgment but has already crossed over from death to life!

(ESV) Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life. He does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life.

(Geneva) Verely, verely I say vnto you, he that heareth my worde, and beleeueth him that sent me, hath euerlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation, but hath passed from death vnto life.

(Greek NT TR) αμην αμην λεγω υμιν οτι ο τον λογον μου ακουων και πιστευων τω πεμψαντι με εχει ζωην αιωνιον και εις κρισιν ουκ ερχεται αλλα μεταβεβηκεν εκ του θανατου εις την ζωην

(GW) I can guarantee this truth: Those who listen to what I say and believe in the one who sent me will have eternal life. They won't be judged because they have already passed from death to life.

(LITV-TSP) Truly, truly, I say to you, the one who hears My word, and believes the One who has sent Me, has everlasting life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life.

(KJV) Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.

(KJV+) Verily,G281 verily,G281 I sayG3004 unto you,G5213 (G3754) He that hearethG191 myG3450 word,G3056 andG2532 believethG4100 on him that sentG3992 me,G3165 hathG2192 everlastingG166 life,G2222 andG2532 shall notG3756 comeG2064 intoG1519 condemnation;G2920 butG235 is passedG3327 fromG1537 deathG2288 untoG1519 life.G2222

(NKJV) "Most assuredly, I say to you, he who hears My word and believes in Him who sent Me has everlasting life, and shall not come into judgment, but has passed from death into life.

(NLT) “I tell you the truth, those who listen to my message and believe in God who sent me have eternal life. They will never be condemned for their sins, but they have already passed from death into life.

(YLT) 'Verily, verily, I say to you—He who is hearing my word, and is believing Him who sent me, hath life age-during, and to judgment he doth not come, but hath passed out of the death to the life.

.
 
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claninja

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I need to be clear here. We need to try and get on the same page. If by satan's little season you are meaning the little season after the thousand years, I'm not arguing that the little season in Revelation 6:11 is meaning the little season after the thousand years. I'm arguing that there are two little seasons,

That clears a little up. Thank you.

To somewhat sum things up via my perspective---There is this little season that has to be fulfilled first, before God can begin enacting revenge on the martyrs already resting under the altar in heaven. This little season they are told to rest is paralleling the time their fellowservants also and their brethren, are being martyred back on earth. And that this is referring to the 42 month reign of the beast when their fellowservants also and their brethren, are being martyred back on earth.

This is creating a little more confusion for me, however.

So according to your position, the resting of the saints for a little while until they = satan's 1st little season before the millennium = the 42 month reign of the beast.

Satan's little season occurs when he is cast out of heaven:

Revelation 12:7-9,12 Now war arose in heaven, Michael and his angels fighting against the dragon. And the dragon and his angels fought back, 8but he was defeated, and there was no longer any place for them in heaven. 9And the great dragon was thrown down, that ancient serpent, who is called the devil and Satan, the deceiver of the whole world—he was thrown down to the earth, and his angels were thrown down with him. Therefore, rejoice, O heavens and you who dwell in them! But woe to you, O earth and sea, for the devil has come down to you in great wrath, because he knows that his time is short!

According to Jesus, Satan is cast out and comes at the ascension of Christ

John 12:31 Now is the judgment of this world; now will the ruler of this world be cast out.
John 14:30 I will no longer talk much with you, for the ruler of this world is coming. He has no claim on me,

According to Paul, satan was "soon" to be crushed.

Romans 16:20 The God of peace will soon crush Satan under your feet.

So do you use scripture to interpret scripture and understand that Paul and Jesus are talking about the same events in revelation 12, or does your position force you to create multiple little seasons of satan and multiple times satan is cast out


Would you equate the 42 month reign of the beast with only the 7th head?

Revelation 17:10 they are also seven kings, five of whom have fallen, one is, the other has not yet come, and when he does come he must remain only a little while.

Or with the Beast that was and is not, and is the 8th?

Revelation 17:11-13 As for the beast that was and is not, it is an eighth but it belongs to the seven, and it goes to destruction. And the ten horns that you saw are ten kings who have not yet received royal power, but they are to receive authority as kings for one hour, together with the beast. These are of one mind, and they hand over their power and authority to the beast.

If taken literally, The 42 month reign of the beast obviously isn't associated with the entire existence of the beast, as 5 heads had already fallen and 1 "is" at the time John wrote revelation.

Revelation 17:10 they are also seven kings, five of whom have fallen, one is, the other has not yet come, and when he does come he must remain only a little while.

The beast that was and is not (the 8th), along with the 10 horns that destroy the harlot are used by God to avenge the blood of the saints.

Revelation 17:16-17 And the ten horns that you saw, they and the beast will hate the prostitute. They will make her desolate and naked, and devour her flesh and burn her up with fire, for God has put it into their hearts to carry out his purpose by being of one mind and handing over their royal power to the beast, until the words of God are fulfilled.

Revelation 19:2 for his judgments are true and just; for he has judged the great prostitute who corrupted the earth with her immorality, and has avenged on her the blood of his servants.

Jesus charges 1st century Jerusalem will all the righteous blood shed on earth:

Matthew 23:35-36 so that on you may come all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah the son of Barachiah,f whom you murdered between the sanctuary and the altar. Truly, I say to you, all these things will come upon this generation.

So do you use scripture to interpret scripture and believe the Jesus is talking about the same event as revelation 17-19, or does your belief force you to create multiple times when God's servants are avenged?

Sorry, this is just giving me so many different questions on this.














 
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sovereigngrace

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And...yes God knew Adam would mess up and God was merciful.
And....Yes God knew that Israel could not obey Him and God will be merciful to them too.

God is just and merciful.

Same difference. I don’t see your point at all.
 
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sovereigngrace

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As to the first resurrection, I simply see it as a type of a resurrection, and that that type of resurrection always precedes the other type of resurrection, thus why it is also called the first resurrection. There are only 2 types of resurrections in total.

The 2 types of resurrections. 1) the resurrection of the righteous just. 2) the resurrection of the unrighteous damned.

Which resurrection did Christ rise in? 1) of course. Did any resurrection of the unrighteous damned precede His resurrection? No.

The dead in Christ that rise first, which type of resurrection do they rise in? 1) or 2)? 1) of course. Do any resurrections of the unrighteous damned precede their resurrections? No. There you go then. Not only is the first resurrection a type of resurrection like I already indicated, and since there are only 2 types of resurrections in total, the first resurrection always precedes the other type of resurrection in every instance.

All I am seeing in your posts is personal opinion. It doesn't matter how many times you forward that, or it doesn't matter how boldly you proclaim it, it is still personal opinion. I am seeing no corroboration. That is because Premil does not rely on corroboration. When you press them for literal biblical support for their theory of Revelation 20 they normally respond: "Revelation 20 says." Premils interpret the whole of Scripture in the light of their view of Revelation 20 instead of interpreting Revelation 20 in the light of the whole of Scripture. This is faulty and dangerous hermeneutics! Revelation 20 cannot corroborate their view of Revelation 20. Amils on the other hand tend to use the biblical premise "what saith the Scripture."

The only conclusion I can arrive at is that the Premil interpretation of Revelation 20 is in error, it conflicts with numerous Scripture, and enjoys NO other serious scriptural support.

Your refusal to submit corroboration reinforces my opening point in the Op:

(1) Premil is totally preoccupied with, and dependent upon, Revelation 20. It interprets the rest of Scripture in the light of its opinion of one lone highly-debated chapter located in the most figurative and obscure book in the Bible. All end-time Scripture is viewed through the lens of Revelation 20. This is not a very wise way to establish any truth or doctrine.

Nowhere in Scripture does it portray the resurrection of the just as "the first resurrection" - or is it. For your info, there has been a glorious pivotal resurrection that occurred 2000 years ago that preceded it.

The Bible makes it clear that Christ is "the first resurrection" (Acts 26:23 and Revelation 20:6), "the firstborn from the dead" (Colossians 1:18), "the firstfruits of them that slept" (1 Corinthians 15:20), "first begotten of the dead" (Revelation 1:5). Positionally, we have our part in His life, death, resurrection, ascension and glorious reign through regeneration - being "in Christ." This means the lake of fire (the second death) has no claim over us. Our sin was buried with Christ and when He arose we arose. He was our representative. He was our substitute. The company that have their “part” in the first resurrection in Revelation 20:6 are all those that are spiritually raised “in Christ” from the grave of their sin.

Romans 6:4 says, “we are buried with him by baptism into death.”

Colossians 2:12 agrees, saying, we are “Buried with him in baptism.”

Romans 6:4 says, “like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.”

Colossians 2:12 again concurs, saying, “ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.”

What Scripture, if any, do you consider definitely corroborates the Premillennial interpretation of Revelation 20 that there are two distinct physical resurrection days (the first for the righteous, the second for the wicked) separated by a literal 1000 years+?

42 months

Firstly, the dragon, the beast, and the false prophet's activity are not simply restricted to 42 months before Christ's Coming, as you suggest. I didn't think anyone believed that, although, nothing shocks me in end-time discussion. Moreover, to attribute what you wrongly believe on this to the Amil position is wrong. Amils believe that they continue throughout the intra-Advent period (the millennium time).

Secondly, the beast represents the ongoing reign of Satan on the earth throughout time through the world secular anti-Christ system. It is not an end-time invention as Futurist's imagine.

Thirdly, Revelation is not chronological. It is a number of recaps describing the same intra-Advent period. The end of the millennium and Satan's "little season" corresponds with the end time persecution spoke elsewhere in Revelation and in other Scripture. The millennium does not follow Rev 17-19 in time, but rather parallels it. Rev 20 is the last of 7 recapitulations.
 
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sovereigngrace

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Here is the main reason to reject the pre[trib rapture:
This is a question for those who believe in a pre-trib rapture to heaven of the Church; they need to carefully consider:
If the Church is taken to heaven while Jewish Israel remain on earth, to go through the Great Tribulation, how is it that God’s holy people are seen in the holy Land before the GT?

Isaiah 66:15-21 The Lord is coming in fire, He will destroy the ungodly peoples.......... I am coming to gather people from all the nations, they will declare My glory to the world. They will come on every means of transport to My holy City. Psalms 107

Ezekiel 34:11-16..After the Lord’s Day of wrath....I shall search for My sheep and gather them from out of the nations into their own country.... John 10:16

Isaiah 35:1-10 The Land will be regenerated ....and a highway will appear, that the ransomed of the Lord shall walk on as they come to Zion, with gladness and joy.

Romans 9:24-26 We Christians are the objects of God’s mercy, who He has called out of the Jew and Gentile peoples....In the same place as the ancient Israelites were rejected; you will be called the children of the Living God.


Then; later, when the leader of the rest of the world takes dictatorial control:

Daniel 7:25 ...the holy people will be delivered into his power, [the Anti-Christ] for 3½ years.
Revelation 13:5-7 The beast, [the Anti-Christ] is given authority over the world for 42 months and he wages war on God’s people, defeating them.

Revelation 12:17 Furiously, the dragon, [the Anti-Christ] persecutes those who keep the Commandments and who witness to Jesus.

The pre-trib rapture doctrine has the current inhabitants of Israel, who are in apostasy and rejection of Jesus now; passing through the final 3½ year period before Jesus Returns and finally accepting Christianity, as per Zechariah 12:9-14

But the prophesies above, plainly state that it will be the faithful people of God, who are Christian people from every tribe, race, nation and language, who are present in the holy Land during the seven years of Daniel 9:27.

Also it is God’s faithful Christian people who are there when Gog and his horde attack them and the Lord protects them. Ezekiel 38:8-12



This truth is confirmed by many prophesies, especially Jeremiah 12:14=16:

Jeremiah 12:14-16 These are the Words of the Lord: I am against all those evil neighbours who have encroached onto the Land that My Israelite people will inherit. Take note; I will pluck them out from where they are now and also I will pluck out the House of Judah as well. After I have removed them, I will Return and have compassion on them, bringing them back to their heritage, if they will diligently learn the way of My people, to only swear by My Name: the Living God. But if they refuse, then I will completely remove and destroy them. This Bible passage is extremely informative, it gives the Lord’s plans for three groups of people:

1/ The evil neighbours; The Islamic nations and entities surrounding Israel. Soon to be cleared out of the entire Middle East region by the terrible Day of the Lord’s wrath by fire from the sun. Psalms 83:1-18, Isaiah 30:25-30, Amos 1:1-11, 2:1-5

2/ The House of Judah, the Jewish people, currently inhabiting a part of the holy Land. The same fate as the neighbours, but a remnant will be saved. Isaiah 6:11-13, Zechariah 13:8-9, Romans 9:27

3/ My people; the true Israelites of God, every Christian believer; individuals from every tribe, race, nation and language. Revelation 5:9-10, 1 Peter 2:9-10

The story described here, is clear and concise: The Lord is about to solve all the Middle East problems, to a similar degree as how He reset civilization in Noah’s time. All the holy land will be depopulated, Jeremiah 10:18, excepting a small remnant of Messianic Jews who will shelter in bunkers in Jerusalem. Isaiah 29:1-4, Romans 9:27

This clearance will allow the gathering and settling of His faithful Christian people into their heritage where they will, at last be the people He always wanted there; a people who will be His witnesses; Isaiah 43:10, John 15:27, and display His Light to the nations. Isaiah 49:8, Matthew 5:14-16

Our Christian heritage, in all of the holy Land and our destiny. Ezekiel 39:25-29

Your argument does not make sense. That is like saying how can there be believers in heaven today because there are still Christians on earth. That is a nonsensical enquiry.
 
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TMarcum

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I don't know what you mean by another thousand years? There is only one period of a thousand years. Either that thousand year period precedes the 2nd coming(Amil), or that it follows it(Premil). This 42 month reign of the beast is what solves the when. This 42 month reign must be followed by the 2nd coming, that is the first thing to note. Most Amils, thus not all Amils, and all Premils, agree that the 2nd coming follows the 42 month reign of the beast.

As to satan being set free for a little season according to Revelation 20:3, that is clearly meaning after the thousand years he is bound has expired. The thousand years mentioned in verses 2-6, these events run in parallel. IOW, while satan is in the pit during the thousand years, those who have part in the first resurrection are living again and are reigning with Christ during this very same thousand years satan is bound in the pit.


Getting back to my point about the 42 month reign of the beast solving the 'when', thus either Amil or Premil. The question is, when does the 42 month reign of the beast take place, in relation to the thousand years? Before the thousand years? During the thousand years? Or after the thousand years? This is where Revelation 20:4 can help us immensely ---and I saw the souls of them---which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands

The first question that must be asked and answered is this. When are they martyred? Answer: during the 42 month reign of the beast, obviously. Who could deny that, and why, if they did?

The next question that must be asked and answered is this. Are they martyred before the thousand years, during the thousand years, or after the thousand years? Obviously it can't be the latter if they are already martyred and live and reign with Christ a thousand years before satan is ever loosed from the pit. Clearly the thousand years precede satan's loosing from the pit.

And since the 42 month reign can't logically happen after the thousand years, there goes your version of Amil out the window altogether, since your version of Amil can't logically place the 42 month reign of the beast after the thousand years where you need it to fit in order for your version of Amil to even work. Even though you all may still insist it fits after the thousand years, regardless, that still does not make it true if it defies logic when you all insist it fits there.

Speaking for myself, if something is at least logical, I'm open to that something being a possibility. Unfortunately for Amils there is nothing logical about the 42 month reign of the beast occurring after the thousand years when Revelation 20:4 is already undeniably telling us it doesn't and can't occur after the thousand years since it already occurs way before then, according to the texts involved.

OK, we probably cannot get free from this topic. Let's move on to one that is related. Here are 2 separate passages; one where there is the battle where the beast and false profit being destroyed and cast into the lake of fire. The other where Satan is destroyed and cast into the lake of fire.

You insist that these two events are seperated by 1000 years. The one in Rev 19:20 is the one that is before the 1000 year MK period and the one in chapter Rev 20:10 is after the 1000 years is over.

Revelation 19:20 And the beast was taken, and with him the false prophet that wrought miracles before him, with which he deceived them that had received the mark of the beast, and them that worshipped his image. These both were cast alive into a lake of fire burning with brimstone.

Revelation 20:10 And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever.


Well how do you explain what prompted the whole idea of the battle? We read in (Rev 16:13-14), where it was prompted:

Rev 16
13 And I saw three unclean spirits like frogs come out of the mouth of the dragon, and out of the mouth of the beast, and out of the mouth of the false prophet.

14 For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the whole world, to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty.

The bible clearly tells us when these battles began to form. Please read the text several times to be sure you are getting it all. All (3) three were together and (3) three evil spirits like frogs came out of the mouths of the dragon (Satan the devil), the false profit (2nd beast with 2 horns), and the beast (with 7 heads). Correct?

Now look closely at what the text says next. For they are evil spirits, working miracles, "which go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the "whole world", to gather them to "the battle" of "that great day" of God Almighty.

Please read this one more time.

"Which" go forth unto the kings of the earth and of the "whole world" to gather them to "the battle" of "that great day" of God Almighty.

How can this be? They are all on one mission to go forth unto the kings of the WHOLE WORLD, to gather them to "THE BATTLE" of "THAT GREAT DAY" of God Almighty.

I see no mention of any thing plural in any of this. No use of the word battles, or great days, of wars. No, the text is singular in every facet.

The battle of Rev 19:20 is the exact same battle and on the exact same day as the battle of Rev 20:10. And they are both cast in the lake of fire on the exact same day.
 
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DavidPT

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If you passed from death to life, what would that event be called?

John 5:24

(CJB) Yes, indeed! I tell you that whoever hears what I am saying and trusts the One who sent me has eternal life -- that is, he will not come up for judgment but has already crossed over from death to life!

(ESV) Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life. He does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life.

(Geneva) Verely, verely I say vnto you, he that heareth my worde, and beleeueth him that sent me, hath euerlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation, but hath passed from death vnto life.

(Greek NT TR) αμην αμην λεγω υμιν οτι ο τον λογον μου ακουων και πιστευων τω πεμψαντι με εχει ζωην αιωνιον και εις κρισιν ουκ ερχεται αλλα μεταβεβηκεν εκ του θανατου εις την ζωην

(GW) I can guarantee this truth: Those who listen to what I say and believe in the one who sent me will have eternal life. They won't be judged because they have already passed from death to life.

(LITV-TSP) Truly, truly, I say to you, the one who hears My word, and believes the One who has sent Me, has everlasting life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life.

(KJV) Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.

(KJV+) Verily,G281 verily,G281 I sayG3004 unto you,G5213 (G3754) He that hearethG191 myG3450 word,G3056 andG2532 believethG4100 on him that sentG3992 me,G3165 hathG2192 everlastingG166 life,G2222 andG2532 shall notG3756 comeG2064 intoG1519 condemnation;G2920 butG235 is passedG3327 fromG1537 deathG2288 untoG1519 life.G2222

(NKJV) "Most assuredly, I say to you, he who hears My word and believes in Him who sent Me has everlasting life, and shall not come into judgment, but has passed from death into life.

(NLT) “I tell you the truth, those who listen to my message and believe in God who sent me have eternal life. They will never be condemned for their sins, but they have already passed from death into life.

(YLT) 'Verily, verily, I say to you—He who is hearing my word, and is believing Him who sent me, hath life age-during, and to judgment he doth not come, but hath passed out of the death to the life.

.

I do get where you are going with this. I indicated there are only 2 types of resurrections, and that you in this post show there is third type as well.

So explain why in Revelation 20, that that would be the type of resurrection meant, rather than a bodily resurrection like Christ partook of? And why are some of you arguing that the first resurrection is Christ's, which means a bodily resurrection, then turning right around, and in the next breath, arguing that the first resurrection is not even meaning a bodily resurrection, but is instead meaning a spiritual resurrection that takes place while someone is still physically alive and hasn't even physically died yet? Good luck applying that type of resurrection to Christ as well, as if He too also needed to first pass from death to life, the same way those passages you provided are meaning.
 
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sovereigngrace

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I do get where you are going with this. I indicated there are only 2 types of resurrections, and that you in this post show there is third type as well.

So explain why in Revelation 20, that that would be the type of resurrection meant, rather than a bodily resurrection like Christ partook of? And why are some of you arguing that the first resurrection is Christ's, which means a bodily resurrection, then turning right around, and in the next breath, arguing that the first resurrection is not even meaning a bodily resurrection, but is instead meaning a spiritual resurrection that takes place while someone is still physically alive and hasn't even physically died yet? Good luck applying that type of resurrection to Christ as well, as if He too also needed to first pass from death to life, the same way those passages you provided are meaning.

Revelation 20:6 simply says, “Blessed and holy is he ‘that hath part’ (present active particle) in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power.”

The Greek word for "first" (as in first resurrection) is protos. It is a contracted superlative meaning foremost (in time, place, order and/or importance). So which is the "first" (or protos) resurrection - Christ's or the resurrection that occurs at the second coming? This is a pretty simply question.

Which is the foremost resurrection in time?
Which is the foremost resurrection in place?
Which is the foremost resurrection in order?
Which is the foremost resurrection in importance?

Christ's resurrection is the "first" or foremost resurrection in time.
Christ's resurrection is the "first" or foremost resurrection in place.
Christ's resurrection is the "first" or foremost resurrection in order.
Christ's resurrection is the "first" or foremost resurrection in importance.

What many Premils overlook the phrase "hath part." Whatever that refers to will seal this debate. The unfortunate thing for Premils is that it is present tense. So whatever resurrection it is speaking of, believers currently have their "part" in it. Whatever “the first resurrection” is, participation in it qualifies humans’ to escape the horrors of eternal punishment (the second death). In this experience Christians identify with Christ’s victorious resurrection.

The Greek for “that hath part” is echo méros. The Greek verb echo correctly interpreted “that hath” in the King James Version is written in the present tense and in the active voice. Therefore, we can view the relevance and vitality of “the first resurrection” as being both current and ongoing. Christ’s victory over death is not simply a past event that has no active bearing upon what we are today; it is ongoing reality in the lives of God’s people. The Greek word translated “part” in the text is the word meros meaning share, allotment or portion. This reading tells us that all those that have come to the joy of saving faith in Christ have become partakers in the resurrection life, and through this will escape the horrors of the second death – eternal wrath.

This passage is describing the reality and result of our mystical union with Christ. The expression “in Christ” [Gr. en Christo] is found 216 times in the New Testament and refers to our federal and covenantal standing. It shows us that our spiritual status is totally derived from and dependent upon relationship with Christ.
 
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BABerean2

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So explain why in Revelation 20, that that would be the type of resurrection meant, rather than a bodily resurrection like Christ partook of?

John saw "souls" in Revelation chapter 20. Where would the "souls" of dead believers be found?

The Apostle John recorded both John chapter 5, and Revelation chapter 20.

Which one of the resurrections found below would already apply to those Christians who have died, and their souls are in heaven with Christ?

Joh 5:24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.
Joh 5:25 Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live.
Joh 5:26 For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;
Joh 5:27 And hath given him authority to execute judgment also, because he is the Son of man.
Joh 5:28 Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice,
Joh 5:29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
Joh 5:30 I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.

This would be the "first resurrection" found in John chapter 5?

The second resurrection in John chapter 5 is found in verses 28-29.
It is the bodily resurrection of the dead, which occurs at the Second Coming of Christ.

.
 
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keras

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Your argument does not make sense. That is like saying how can there be believers in heaven today because there are still Christians on earth. That is a nonsensical enquiry.
Of course it doesn't to you. The idea of going to live in the holy Land is not what you want.

You castigate others for failing to provide scriptural proof of their beliefs, I provided plenty and you just ignore them.
Be assured; what the Prophets said, will be what will happen.
 
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sovereigngrace

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Of course it doesn't to you. The idea of going to live in the holy Land is not what you want.

You castigate others for failing to provide scriptural proof of their beliefs, I provided plenty and you just ignore them.
Be assured; what the Prophets said, will be what will happen.

What the Prophets said, will indeed happen, not what you impose upon their predictions.
 
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DavidPT

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Satan's little season occurs when he is cast out of heaven:

I think you and I may have discussed this in the past, and if so, it's currently not fresh in my memory as to how that discussion went.

So the first thing I'm thinking is this. Before satan is cast out of heaven this obviously means that satan still had access to heaven in some sense or another. If by satan's little season you are meaning his little season after the thousand years, this would indicate you have satan bound in the pit during the time he still had access to heaven, since the thousand years are what precede his little season in Revelation 20.

I don't find it logical that satan would be bound in the pit while he still had access to heaven before this war in heaven breaks out, and that he is then cast to the earth.

The way I solve this is like such. I fully agree that when satan gets cast out of heaven, this is meaning a little season. But not the little season in Revelation 20, but the little season in Revelation 6, and that that little season is meaning the 42 month reign of the beast in Revelation 13.


Once again, though I'm probably sounding like a broken record here----this part in Revelation 20:4---which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands--I take this to mean that they are martyred during the 42 month reign of the beast in Revelation 13. And that they are already martyred before satan is ever loosed from the pit, therefore it is impossible that the 42 month reign of the beast in Revelation 13 occurs after the thousand years, as some Amils insist, if according to this verse they are already martyred during this 42 months before satan is ever loosed from the pit. Even if I weren't Premil, this would still be my conclusions. Yet at the same time, because these are my conclusions, how can I help be anything but Premil?

Like I already pointed out in another post that you may or may not have read, the bulk of my arguments mainly have to with versions of Amil, such as SG holds. Some of my arguments might not be making much sense to you since I'm mainly arguing more against his version of Amil than yours. Mainly because I'm more familiar with his version of Amil than yours. There is a lot about your version of Amil that has lost me, and that I can't even begin to understand what led you to conclude some of the things you do. Such as, if you are applying the little season in Revelation 20 to that of when satan gets cast out of heaven, this indicates you have satan bound a thousand years in the pit while he still has access to heaven. I see zero logic in that.





Would you equate the 42 month reign of the beast with only the 7th head?

Revelation 17:10 they are also seven kings, five of whom have fallen, one is, the other has not yet come, and when he does come he must remain only a little while.

Or with the Beast that was and is not, and is the 8th?

Revelation 17:11-13 As for the beast that was and is not, it is an eighth but it belongs to the seven, and it goes to destruction. And the ten horns that you saw are ten kings who have not yet received royal power, but they are to receive authority as kings for one hour, together with the beast. These are of one mind, and they hand over their power and authority to the beast.

I guess I would equate it with both. What I would like to point out that I fully agree with you about, is what you stated per the following.

If taken literally, The 42 month reign of the beast obviously isn't associated with the entire existence of the beast, as 5 heads had already fallen and 1 "is" at the time John wrote revelation.


As to the following below that I quoted you on, I don't see Revelation 17-19 connecting to Matthew 23:35-36 the way you are seeing it connecting. Revelation 17-19 is still all future to me. Some of Matthew 23 would involve past events in the first century, yet some of it is involving events having to do with judgment that is yet to take place.

For example.

Matthew 23:33 Ye serpents, ye generation of vipers, how can ye escape the damnation of hell?

What does this prophecy have to do with what happened in 70 AD? Are the events of 70 AD what Jesus was meaning by the damnation of hell? Or was He perhaps meaning the following instead---Revelation 20:11-15? The point I'm trying to make, Jesus seemed to be just as concerned about their spiritual condition in this chapter, as He was about what might ultimately happpen to them in future if they haven't changed their ways by the time 70 AD rolls around. And since we have hindsight they didn't at the time, we all know what happened in 70 AD to many of them.

The question is----That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom ye slew between the temple and the altar. Verily I say unto you, All these things shall come upon this generation---should that only be applied to the time they were living in back then, or is Jesus perhaps meaning this generation in another sense?

In Matthew 24 Jesus is meaning this generation in another sense, though I fully realize you totally disagree. But in the event I'm correct about His use of this in Matthew 24, and that you are incorrect about His use of this in Matthew 24, why would I assume Jesus is applying 'this generation' two entirely different ways in both chapters?

So do you use scripture to interpret scripture and believe the Jesus is talking about the same event as revelation 17-19, or does your belief force you to create multiple times when God's servants are avenged?

Sorry, this is just giving me so many different questions on this.

 
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Marilyn C

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Same difference. I don’t see your point at all.

I said -
And...yes God knew Adam would mess up and God was merciful.
And....Yes God knew that Israel could not obey Him and God will be merciful to them too.

God is just and merciful.

You are only giving God`s mercy for individual people in Israel, whereas I am saying that God made the nation of Israel, (knowing they couldn`t obey Him) however God will be merciful to the NATION of ISRAEL, (in the future).
 
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Marilyn C

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To all,

A summary of different beliefs may help us in our discussion.

We know in God`s word He says - `Give no offence, either to the Jews or the Greeks or to the church of God.` (1 Cor. 10: 32)

So people are trying to see where these fit ` the Body of Christ, (church) Israel, (Jews) and the Nations, (Greeks).

Keras is trying to put the Body of Christ on earth with Israel. That then brings the Lord ruling on earth which is His footstool. An obvious error.

Sovereign Grace is trying to put the Body of Christ and the OT saints together in the New Jerusalem. That comes down from God, and is therefore not making the Lord pre-eminent over all. Also he hasn`t thought of the Gentile nations ON the earth, (Rev. 21:24), and can`t seem to put them into his picture.

I was taught that the 3 groups each have a place in God`s great kingdom.

The Body of Christ on His own throne in the highest realm. (Rev. 3: 21)
The OT saints in the New Jerusalem. (Heb. 11:16)
The nation of Israel ruling over the nations on the earth. (Rev. 21: 24, Ex. 17: 22 - 24 & many other)
 
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sovereigngrace

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I said -
And...yes God knew Adam would mess up and God was merciful.
And....Yes God knew that Israel could not obey Him and God will be merciful to them too.

God is just and merciful.

You are only giving God`s mercy for individual people in Israel, whereas I am saying that God made the nation of Israel, (knowing they couldn`t obey Him) however God will be merciful to the NATION of ISRAEL, (in the future).

Contrary to what your Dispy teachers have taught you, salvation has never been by race, but rather by grace. Many Dispensationalists look back to Old Testament Israel through rose-tinted glasses. They talk as if the nation was in step with God in loyal covenant relationship. It is as if they were always faithfully walking in favor with God. Yet the reality was regularly quite the opposite. They often walked in idolatry and disobedience. The carnal rebellion of the children of Israel is repeatedly recorded throughout the Old Testament. Despite their privileged position, their tendency was often to fight the purposes of God. The prophets constantly rebuked them for their folly. They also frequently highlighted the small remnant number that were faithful.

Scripture shows, Esau’s natural birthright, like our own, was not sufficient to impute righteousness into him. All it did was take him to a lost sinner’s hell outside of

But let us look at other examples of this.

Numbers 16:26 describes Israelites Korah, Dathan, and Abiram as “wicked men.” Whilst all of these were off solid Hebrew stock, they did not belong to the Lord. Their awful end (and that of their families) is seen when confirms that: “And the earth opened her mouth, and swallowed them up, and their houses, and all the men that appertained unto Korah, and all their goods” (Numbers 16:32).

No one could argue with any validity that these men and their families were the chosen seed of Abraham! These were not God’s people! They were Israelites that were of their father the devil.

What about the apostate priests Nadab and Abihu in Leviticus 10:1-3? These were sons of Aaron, yet they “offered strange fire before the LORD, which he commanded them not.” What resulted was not pretty: “And there went out fire from the LORD, and devoured them, and they died before the LORD.”

Whilst the religious credentials of these men were impeccable, they were strangers to God, and strangers to salvation. 1 Samuel 2:12 gives us another similar example of priestly man who where enemies of God: "Now the sons (Hophni and Phinehas) of Eli were sons of Belial; they knew not the LORD."

Belial was a common name for Satan in the Old Testament. 1 Samuel 25:25 gives us another example of an Israelite who was unsaved. He is described as “this man of Belial, even Nabal.” Earlier and 1 Samuel 25:3 he is described as “the man was churlish and evil in his doings; and he was of the house of Caleb.”

Whilst he had good pedigree, being “of the house of Caleb,” he was nonetheless a child of the evil one.

We find a Benjamite in 2 Samuel 20:1 who is described as “a man of Belial, whose name was Sheba.”

Numbers 14:29–30 confirms that not all of the children of Israel who came out of Egypt entered into the Promised Land. God dealt very harshly with those who sinned against God, by complaining and refusing to believe Him: “Your carcases shall fall in this wilderness; and all that were numbered of you, according to your whole number, from twenty years old and upward, which have murmured against me, Doubtless ye shall not come into the land, concerning which I sware to make you dwell therein, save Caleb the son of Jephunneh, and Joshua the son of Nun.”

Unbelieving Israelites didn’t enter into God’s “rest,” however, believing Israel did. This is a pattern in Scripture. God is bound to a believing people. His elect are a company of faith.

Hebrews 3:16-19 substantiates this saying, “For some, when they had heard, did provoke: howbeit not all that came out of Egypt by Moses. But with whom was he grieved forty years? was it not with them that had sinned, whose carcases fell in the wilderness? And to whom sware he that they should not enter into his rest, but to them that believed not? So we see that they could not enter in because of unbelief.”

Only Joshua and Caleb and all those under 20 years old experienced Canaan land.

Things got to such a low ebb in Elijah’s day that there the Lord disclosed that were only “seven thousand in Israel, all the knees which have not bowed unto Baal, and every mouth which hath not kissed him” (1 Kings 19:18). This shows us the degree of apostasy that had overcome natural Israel. While Israel may had had 3 million citizens, amazingly, there were only 7,000 Israelites that were true Israelites in Elijah's day,

It is quite amazing the amount of kings both of Israel and Judah that did evil in the eyes of the Lord. The Old Testament shows us many cases of them building the high places, raising up altars unto Baal, setting up graven images, making groves, worshiping the host of heaven, and serving them. Sadly, the people followed them like poodles.

Israel’s wicked kings included Jeroboam I, (931—910 BC), Nadab (910—909 BC) Baasha (909—886 BC) Elah (886—885 BC), Zimri (885 BC), Tibni (885—880 BC), Omri (885—874 BC), Ahab (874—853 BC), Ahaziah (853—852 BC), Jehoahaz (814—798 BC), Joash (798—782 BC), Jeroboam II (793—753 BC) Zechariah, (753 BC), Shallum (752 BC), Menahem (752—742 BC), Pekahiah (742—740 BC), Pekah (752—732 BC), and Hoshea, (732—722 BC).

Judah’s wicked kings and a queen included Abijah (913—911 BC), Jehoram/Joram (53—841 BC), Ahaziah (841 BC), Queen Athaliah (841—835 BC), Ahaz (735—715 BC), Amon (642—640 BC), Jehoahaz (609 BC), Jehoiakim (609—597 BC), Jehoiachin (597 BC), and Zedekiah (597—586 BC).

These kings and queens lead Israel and Judah into much idolatry. They rebelled against God. They fought against God. They refused to buy down to his precepts. And, sadly, Israelites followed him into error.

Kingdom favor has been redirected from national Israel to the international New Testament congregation.
 
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sovereigngrace

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To all,

A summary of different beliefs may help us in our discussion.

We know in God`s word He says - `Give no offence, either to the Jews or the Greeks or to the church of God.` (1 Cor. 10: 32)

So people are trying to see where these fit ` the Body of Christ, (church) Israel, (Jews) and the Nations, (Greeks).

Keras is trying to put the Body of Christ on earth with Israel. That then brings the Lord ruling on earth which is His footstool. An obvious error.

Sovereign Grace is trying to put the Body of Christ and the OT saints together in the New Jerusalem. That comes down from God, and is therefore not making the Lord pre-eminent over all. Also he hasn`t thought of the Gentile nations ON the earth, (Rev. 21:24), and can`t seem to put them into his picture.

I was taught that the 3 groups each have a place in God`s great kingdom.

The Body of Christ on His own throne in the highest realm. (Rev. 3: 21)
The OT saints in the New Jerusalem. (Heb. 11:16)
The nation of Israel ruling over the nations on the earth. (Rev. 21: 24, Ex. 17: 22 - 24 & many other)

You take this innocuous passage in 1 Corinthians 10:32, which is simply speaking of eating and drinking onto idols, and build a whole elaborate eschatological theology around it. They do this to support their belief that there are three distinct peoples in this world.

This reading has absolutely nothing to do with categorizing the peoples of this world into three distinct spiritual groups, or is it anything to do with the second coming of Christ, or some supposed future seven-year tribulation. Rather, it is simply speaking of, and relating to, the subject of eating unto idols. This passage is in essence saying that believers must respect the eating customs of all, whether in our everyday life among the Jew and non-Jew (with their distinct customs) or whether among believers – the Church of Jesus Christ. We must eat as unto the Lord wherever we go, unless that food it is sacrificed unto idols (v28). 1 Corinthians 10:31-32 thus says, “Whether therefore ye eat, or drink, or whatsoever ye do, do all to the glory of God. Give none offence, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God.”

This passage separates unbelievers into two distinct groups Jews and Gentiles because they have two diametrically different systems of eating. This was the issue under discussion. That was why Paul divided the unbelievers. He is illustrating the fact that wherever you are among the brethren (the church of God) or outside among the unsaved (Jew or Gentile) “do all to the glory of God.” This passage is addressing a natural issue – albeit, it is for the purpose of outlining spiritual wisdom and truth. This reading is not suggesting or hinting at the notion that there are three types of people in God’s eyes. There isn’t! There are either saved or lost. Jews and Gentiles are found in both groups.

Therefore, to build such a major doctrine upon such a totally unrelated isolated passage is both naïve, unwise and mistaken. Notably, this is the only passage that the dispensationalists can find that identifies three groupings of people in the world. And, as we have already seen, it is nothing to do with dispensationalism, notwithstanding, they force their whole school of thought into this reading as if it will somehow prop up this carefully constructed sandcastle.

Significantly, the word rendered “Gentiles” in 1 Corinthians 10:32 in the AV is the Greek word helleesin which properly interpreted means a hellen or a Grecian or an inhabitant of Hellas in Greece. It is translated Greek in John 12:20, Acts 14:1, 16:1, 16:3, 17:4, 18:4, 19:10, 19:17, 20:21, 21:28, Romans 1:14, 1:16, 10:12, 1 Corinthians 1:22, 1:24, Galatians 3:28, Colossians 3:11.
 
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Marilyn C

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Contrary to what your Dispy teachers have taught you, salvation has never been by race, but rather by grace.

Remember I agreed with you saying that Salvation is NOT based on race. The nation of Israel will not be saved according to race but by the mercy of God as we all are.

You still do not have an answer as to why God made a nation that He knew could not obey Him and then you say He will not be merciful to them as He is to US!

And what about the `nations on the new earth?` (Rev. 21: 24) Who are they? Obviously they are of races but they would not be saved upon that but God in His mercy desires to have all nations on the new earth.

God does not have an oops.
 
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You take this innocuous passage in 1 Corinthians 10:32, which is simply speaking of eating and drinking onto idols, and build a whole elaborate eschatological theology around it. They do this to support their belief that there are three distinct peoples in this world.

This reading has absolutely nothing to do with categorizing the peoples of this world into three distinct spiritual groups, or is it anything to do with the second coming of Christ, or some supposed future seven-year tribulation. Rather, it is simply speaking of, and relating to, the subject of eating unto idols. This passage is in essence saying that believers must respect the eating customs of all, whether in our everyday life among the Jew and non-Jew (with their distinct customs) or whether among believers – the Church of Jesus Christ. We must eat as unto the Lord wherever we go, unless that food it is sacrificed unto idols (v28). 1 Corinthians 10:31-32 thus says, “Whether therefore ye eat, or drink, or whatsoever ye do, do all to the glory of God. Give none offence, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God.”

This passage separates unbelievers into two distinct groups Jews and Gentiles because they have two diametrically different systems of eating. This was the issue under discussion. That was why Paul divided the unbelievers. He is illustrating the fact that wherever you are among the brethren (the church of God) or outside among the unsaved (Jew or Gentile) “do all to the glory of God.” This passage is addressing a natural issue – albeit, it is for the purpose of outlining spiritual wisdom and truth. This reading is not suggesting or hinting at the notion that there are three types of people in God’s eyes. There isn’t! There are either saved or lost. Jews and Gentiles are found in both groups.

Therefore, to build such a major doctrine upon such a totally unrelated isolated passage is both naïve, unwise and mistaken. Notably, this is the only passage that the dispensationalists can find that identifies three groupings of people in the world. And, as we have already seen, it is nothing to do with dispensationalism, notwithstanding, they force their whole school of thought into this reading as if it will somehow prop up this carefully constructed sandcastle.

Significantly, the word rendered “Gentiles” in 1 Corinthians 10:32 in the AV is the Greek word helleesin which properly interpreted means a hellen or a Grecian or an inhabitant of Hellas in Greece. It is translated Greek in John 12:20, Acts 14:1, 16:1, 16:3, 17:4, 18:4, 19:10, 19:17, 20:21, 21:28, Romans 1:14, 1:16, 10:12, 1 Corinthians 1:22, 1:24, Galatians 3:28, Colossians 3:11.

You said -
He is illustrating the fact that wherever you are among the brethren (the church of God) or outside among the unsaved (Jew or Gentile) “do all to the glory of God.”

We can all count 3 there. Also that is not just based on one scripture as that would be wrong, but of God`s purpose through Christ which is for the 3 groups, revealed throughout scripture.

Trying to fit the OT saints in with the Body of Christ you have to disregard scriptures like Heb. 11: 40 -

`God having provided SOMETHING BETTER FOR US..` And `something better,` in the Greek means a great dominion.
 
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