- Apr 18, 2020
- 2,117
- 618
- 65
- Country
- United States
- Faith
- Non-Denom
- Marital Status
- Married
Strawman - I never said that sin did not exist before the Law. I merely accept Paul at his word - the sin that is innate to mankind is empowered, aroused, and strengthened by the Law.
What is Paul saying in these particular texts?:
But sin, taking opportunity through the commandment, produced in me [h]coveting of every kind; for apart from the Law sin is dead
for sin, taking an opportunity through the commandment, deceived me and through it killed me
Please address these texts, and show how they are not implying that sin is empowered and or enabled by the Law of Moses.
It is not wise to take a couple of verses from the Bible, and ignore everything else that is written. How is it possible to know about, and repent of sin that exists in me, If God does not first give me His Law?
The Law doesn't deceive, sin does. The Law makes known the deceit, that is hidden until God's Law "revives" it.
What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
You are implying, through Paul, that God's Law, which defines sin, somehow makes the Sin that exists in secret, more powerful, more sinful, more deadly than it was before it was known.
11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
I have been here before. You are convinced God's Law has a "dark side". I have presented, as others have presented, Paul's own words which contradict your assertion.
I don't believe Paul thought of God's Laws as having a "dark side". Given he certainly could have said that in his letters if he truly believed such a thing. But he didn't. Instead he talked about how Holy, Just, Righteous, and Good God's Laws are, how he delights in them, and how he "Serves them" in his mind.
Why would he and Jesus "serve them" if their function is to "Empower and enable sin"? Why would God command me to follow a Path that empowers "death" in me? Why would Jesus tell me to "keep the Commandments" if their designed purpose was to "empower sin" in me? I think you have been misinformed about Paul's intent here.
An unknown sin can not be repented of. Is that not the true reason for the Law? To show me of the existing sin that deceived me?
It seems we are at an impasse. You are convinced, it seems, that God's Laws have a dark side, while I am convinced by the overwhelming evidence from the God of the Bible, the Prophets, Jesus, and His Apostles, including Paul, that the God of the Bible is perfect, Just, Holy, Good and Righteous. And that HIS Word's and Laws are also perfect, Just, Holy, Good and Righteous. I guess some day we shall know.
Thank you so much for the discussion. I appreciate it very much.
Upvote
0