You said Christ does not leave his throne
to defeat anyone, that is false.
I posted
2 Thessalonians 2:8 because it says He shall destroy with the brightness of his coming
Yep. Already happened.
And you're digressing from the op.
This op is about a very specific question asked about David's unending throne. Acts 2 answers that question. Everything else is off-topic.
But this is what happens everytime someone (not just me) posts this answer because it's intolerable to certain views. Immediately Jacob and Daniel and Ezekiel and all varieties of
other scripture are brought
eisegetically and
off-topically into the conversation. If you read through my posts then you read where I posted the exact same admonition to OldWiseGuy: stay on topic; the topic is
David's covenant and the descendant who would reign without end.
The problem with the copy-and-paste eisegesis is that I can't get any of you to ever stick to one verse at a time. When you get caught in the mistaken interpretation of one verse then you jump to another in avoidance. And then when that verse is addressed a leap to another and it becomes an endless chase around scripture in which you never face what scripture actually states. It's like chasing rabbits.
Acts 2 answers this op's question.
You are stuck on Acts 2 which says Christ is on the right hand of God the Fathers Throne over the universe. Other verses talk about [When] He [Christ] takes over King Davids Throne.
I'm not stuck and you have yet to prove "
Other verses talk about [When] He [Christ] takes over King Davids Throne." All of the OT passages you've quoted work through Acts 2. All the NT verses you've quoted prove what I've posted, not your position. This is quite obvious in the distinction between "rule" and "subdue" in 1 Cor. 15 but you've completely ignored what it
states in favor of what your hermeneutic makes it say and you accuse me of not relying on what it
states when the exact opposite is the case.
And we're not going to be able to have cogent discourse as long as you misrepresent my posts. We're not going to have cogent discourse as long as you misrepresent your own posts. We're not going to have cogent discourse as long as you post op-irrelevant content. We're not going to have cogent discourse as long as you don't actually read what the scriptures actually
state. And we're not going to be able to have cogent discourse as long as you endlessly hop around scripture never dealing with anything either of us post.
The scriptures you have posted prove what I have posted, not your position.
.
I never said it did. What
1 Corinthians 15:27-28 shows is that not everything is put under Christ yet.
Well, let's look at that again, shall we?
1 Corinthians 15:27-28
"For HE HAS PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS FEET. But when He says, 'All things are put in subjection,' it is evident that He is excepted who put all things in subjection to Him. When all things are subjected to him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all."
First, you'll note Paul is quoting from the prophet Daniel (ch. 7) and Paul is implicitly saying that prophesy has been fulfilled. Second, it is plainly stated "All things are put in subjection." That is what the verse
states, not what I make it say, not what I read into the text, not what I "interpret," so let's discard all those false accusations I am not standing on what t states and all those accusations I'm interpreting the verse. I am accepting it exactly as written.
Third, the verse says the one who put those things under Jesus is not Himself under that subjection. Fourth, the verse states, when all things are subjected to Jesus then Jesus himself will be subject to the one put who put all things under Jesus. When does the passage say all things will be subjected to Jesus? Well...
according to what the verse actually factually, plainly STATES, all things have already been subjected to him!
You screwed up.
The plain reading of the text leaves with a bit of a conundrum: how can all things be under his subjection and something still be subjected to him? How can the verse
state "
All things are put in subjection," and then say, "
When all things are subjected to him...?"
Psalm 110:1 answers that question and it does so without hermeneutic hurdles. No one has to interpret
anything if they use Psalm 110:1. We don't have to go chasing through the Old Testament with eisegetic inference if we stand firm on what is firmly stated.
Fifth, Paul isn't actually making a statement about future history. Paul is making a statement about his previous statement. He is, in essence saying, "When I say, '
All things are put in subjection' I don't mean God is in subjection." And we understand this because Ephesians 1:23
states, "
And He put all things in subjection under His feet, and gave Him as head over all things to the church, which is His body, the fullness of Him who fills all in all." Jesus fills "all in all." He's already does that. All things are
already put in subjection to Jesus and Jesus fills (not "will be") all in all.
That is what it
states.
You screwed up twice. Three times if we count the failure to recognize Paul's implication Daniel 7 was fulfilled in the first century.
Acts 2 tells us the unending Davidic throne was the resurrection.
Most important to
this discussion, though, is the fact 1 Corinthians 15 doesn't mention "David" or "throne"
anywhere. You've read that into the text. You did not read what was stated as I was falsely accused of doing. Under normal, ordinary,
objective circumstances that's called hypocrisy. don't believe that was your intent so here's an opportunity for you to prove me correct about your innocence and good intent:
Does 1 Corinthians 15 actually STATE anything about David or David's throne?
If not, then please retract what you posted about my not reading what is stated and please acknowledge it was you reading things into the text it doesn't actually state.
Because we won't be having cogent discourse if you don't have any personal integrity.