- Feb 4, 2006
- 46,773
- 10,981
- Country
- United States
- Faith
- Protestant
- Marital Status
- Single
- Politics
- US-Others
This is real simple, IWG:
Acts 2 states something quite specific. Go back and read through your own posts and see what you've posted about Acts 2. When you realize you haven't posted anything about Acts 2 then ask yourself, "Why have I avoided Josh's point? Why have I completely failed to engage what Acts 2?"
Then ask yourself, "Why am I making this about differences in interpretation when Josh hasn't interpreted anything?"
I have repeatedly emphasized the words "states" and "stated" in my posts to you. I did that for two reasons: First to because that is what is stated plainly, and second, because what is stated precludes any need for interpretation.
So when you say, "...based on clear differences in the interpretation of scripture..." you're necessarily pointing to a problem on your side of this conversation! Stop interpreting!!! Read the text as written, plainly read. Not every scripture has to be interpreted! One of the most basic rules of sound exegesis is..... render the figurative by the literal. Another is..... render the OT by what the NT says about it. Stop hiding behind "interpretations" and read what Peter said as he stated it.
Acts 2:29-33 ESV
“Brothers, I may say to you with confidence about the patriarch David that he both died and was buried, and his tomb is with us to this day. Being therefore a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him that he would set one of his descendants on his throne, he foresaw and spoke about the resurrection of the Christ, that he was not abandoned to Hades, nor did his flesh see corruption. This Jesus God raised up, and of that we all are witnesses. Being therefore exalted at the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he has poured out this that you yourselves are seeing and hearing."
No interpretation required.
God was speaking about the resurrection of Christ. Period. Nothing more. Nothing less. Something specifically stated without any need whatsoever for interpretation.
Now can you engage Acts 2 or not? Can you engage Acts 2 as written? Can you engage Acts 2 with leaving the passage and interjecting unrelated verses? Can you engage what Acts 2 states about David descendant on the throne without appealing to persons other than David and Jesus? Can you engage Acts 2?
Because if not that has nothing whatsoever to do with "my" interpretation because I am not interpreting the text. I'm reading it exactly as written. I'm reading it without interpretation. I'm letting that verse do the interpreting and the reason I'm letting that verse do the interpreting is because that is what it does: that verse interprets the oath God swore!
Can you.... will you engage Acts 2:29-33 as written?
Acts 2:29-33 has nothing to do with the op's question. You injected it (to the puzzlement myself and others I'm sure), insisting that it has something to do with the throne of David being given to Christ forever, a fact so established that it is beyond questioning. You seem obsessed with your interpretation. I suggest counseling with your pastor about it.
Last edited:
Upvote
0