What you have done is shown verse after verse that could have implied UR if there were not all the verses that show UR is biblicall wrong!
So you would agree with the following remark, eh:
...
Did Paul teach that all men will be saved, regardless? These verses seem to say that.
* Romans 5:18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
* Romans 5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
* 1 Timothy 2:4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
* 1 Timothy 4:10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
Would you like to add some more to that list of UR verses? Such as any from the following lists:
Unique Proof For Christian, Biblical Universalism
75 UR verses + 100 proofs + 150 reasons etc:
Web Online Help
213 Questions Without Answers:
Questions Without Answers
Well I still await the verse that shows where a person in the lake of fire can repent.
I'll be waiting forever for any that say anyone will "never be saved".
If Jesus wished to express endless punishment, then He would have used expressions such as "endless", "no end" & "never be saved" as per:
How Scripture expresses endless duration (not aion/ios) (paradise, hell, punishment) - Christianity - - City-Data Forum
Jesus didn't use the best words & expressions to describe endlessness in regards to punishment, because He didn't believe in endless punishment.
ENDLESSNESS not applied to eschatological PUNISHMENT in Scripture:
could an 'eternal punishment' simply mean that once instituted it will not change?
12 points re forever and ever (literally to/into "the ages of the ages") being finite:
For the Lord will NOT cast off FOR EVER:
Kolasis in its primary and secondary usages mean punishment!
Punishment can be corrective.
Matthew 25:46
Augustine's ignorance & error re Matthew 25:46
City-Data Forum - View Single Post - What does Matthew 25:46 mean?
What does Matthew 25:46 mean? (Gomorrah, Gospel, unpardonable, hell) - Christianity - - City-Data Forum
Have you been decieved by your Bible translation?
Is aionion necessarily coequal in duration with aionion (in Mt.25:46)?
An argument for "eternal conscious torment"
Matthew 25:46 paralllel argument with Rom 5 19:
Universalist Understanding?
KOLASIS:
Are You of Israel?
YOu still need to show why Matt. 25 should be the 3rd definition of correction, especially in light of the fact the only other time in the Bible it is used (1 JOhn 4) it is punishment!
In John 4 it refers to "punishment" in this life, not in the after life.
Of course punishment can be corrective.
In 1 John 4 it is fear that has "punishment".
Of course fear can be corrective.
The fear of the Lord is the beginning of wisdom and knowledge.
Therefore, my dear friends, as you have always obeyed--not only in my presence, but now much more in my absence--continue to work out your salvation with fear and trembling,
My flesh trembleth for fear of thee; and I am afraid of thy judgments.
But for correction there is dithorsis, epithorsis and sofronismos!
The first two failed in an internet search. The third makes no reference to corrective punishment of criminals or saints, which can be rehabilitative, but to:
"Definition
- an admonishing or calling to soundness of mind, to moderation and self-control
- self-control, moderation"
Sophronismos Meaning in Bible - New Testament Greek Lexicon - New American Standard
All these are much better terms to use for a punishing type of correction or reformation but especially paidiera
It seems not (see above) & my previous post addressed this:
Paideia is used in the NT for the instruction, training & discipline of children, namely those of God.
"Definition...the rearing of a child, training, discipline" (NAS concordance).
OTOH if someone breaks into the home where those children are being trained & disciplined, and then is arrested and taken to a rehabilitative institution, he is being punished for his own good. The people being punished in Matthew 25 are not children being taught & disciplined, but criminals about to be punished. So Jesus chose the correct word there.
Another way universalists may answer your point is in the following thread, where virtually the exact same point as yours was raised by the OP. Here are IMO two of the best responses (among several other UR approaches there tackling the issue):
"This charge I entrust to you, Timothy, my child, in accordance with the prophecies previously made about you, that by them you may wage the good warfare, holding faith and a good conscience. By rejecting this, some have made shipwreck of their faith, among whom are Hymenaeus and Alexander, whom I have handed over to Satan that they may learn not to blaspheme.(I Tim 1:18-20 ESV)"
"The English “may learn” is in the active voice, but the Greek word is in the passive voice, which in its lexical form is none other than “παιδευω” (or “paideuo” as you write it). “that they may be chastised not to blaspheme”. Rotherham’s translation puts it this way, "that they may be taught by discipline not to be defaming. To be taught by discipline is to be chastised."
"Now it’s true that Hymenaeus and Alexander were once believers, but they made shipwreck of their faith! There were no longer believers. Until Paul handed them over to Satan for chastisement, they were doubtless impenitent as well. They were blaspheming!"
"Though unbelievers whom God sends to hell may be impenitent, they will become penitent after they are chastised, just as Paul expected Hymenaeus and Alexander to be after they received their chastisement from Satan."
Words Meaning "Chastisement" Not Used of the Impenitent
"Nothing there indicates they are repentant yet; and what is there indicates they are not only unreprentant but shipwrecked as thoroughly (if not moreso) as in Hebrews 10, which is also about ex-believers (not about pre-Christian unbelievers) as you are very well aware."
"(Similarly, Paul hands over the Stepmom-Sleeping Guy (who might actually be either Alexander or Hymaneous) to Satan for the destruction of his flesh in 1 Cor 6, with an expectation that the SSG’s spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord to come. Not before the coming of the day of the Lord, but in the day of the Lord: the salvation then is contrasted to his punishment now.)"
"Rev 3:19 uses the same term in regard to people who, although nominally Christian, are still clearly being impenitent about their sins or Christ wouldn’t be threatening them with vomiting them out of His mouth! “Be zealous then AND REPENT!!” "
"Paul exhorts fathers to be nurturing their children in the discipline (same term) and the admonition of the Lord. (Eph 6:4) The term admonition {nouthesia} is used where people are impenitently and even gravely sinning, such as in Paul’s instructions at Titus 3:13, “A sectarian man, after one and a second admonition, refuse, being aware that such a one has turned himself out, and is sinning, being self-condemned.” "
"And in Heb 12, where you started with all this in another thread, the context of discipline is not merely that of training or exercise, but of punishment, as the Hebraist’s own reference to the Proverb indicates. (The same term for “exposing” is used here, too, as in Rev 3:19 where Christ warns impenitent Christians to repent or be vomited from His mouth. And the term for “scourging” is the same as just previously in 11:36 where the Hebrew prophets and fathers were scourged by unbelievers among the Jews, in punishment.)"
"Your challenge was met and answered (by Paidion, quite appropriately) out of the gate; and now I’ve added to it."
"Meanwhile, your own attempt elsewhere to argue that {kolasis} means the same at both Matt 25 and 1 John 4, resulted in you eventually arguing that the term when used at 1 John 4 has nothing to do with hopeless punishment or even punishment from God at all, while still insisting that the same meaning must be applied at Matt 25 as at 1 John 4. (In order to avoid discussing the actual narrative and thematic contexts of the judgment there, which I went to the trouble to post in detail.)"
"So you’re running out of words for punishment. Time to give up on {paid-} and move on to {timo-} without bothering to check around on site for what people have argued about it first. (And without bothering to check what the Hebraist’s OT citations involved, for checking what he meant by {timoria}.)"
Words Meaning "Chastisement" Not Used of the Impenitent
