Bible Corruptions

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For a more brief breakdown explanation on the seven KJV editions, type into Google the following keywords:

seven purification site:bibleprotector.com​

And click on the first link and it will lead you to a forum post via from Bible Protector. I say this because I am not allowed to post a direct link to another forum here at CF.
 
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Strong in Him

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Every single word in the Bible is vitally important. Any attempt to add, delete or change a word
or text in the word of God, especially in the book of Revelation (Rev 22:19), will attract the wrath of God.

Err, no.
The Bible was written in Hebrew and Greek, and translated into Greek, Latin and then English - not to mention many other languages since.
There are words in Greek, and no doubt the Hebrew, where there is no direct English equivalent, so words will differ. Take the word 'love' for example; there are 3, or 4, different words for love in Greek; Eros, sexual love, Philios, brotherly lave and Agape, divine love. In English we have only one word; we say "I love chocolate" just as easily as we say "I love you", but don't mean it in the same way.

I am guessing that there are words in the Greek Bibles that are not in the English versions, and vice versa.

The Bible is the guide to the sanctification and salvation of our souls.

The Bible contains the written words of God and is where we learn about God - his nature, his will, his world, our place in his world and how he restores everything that we have messed up.
It reveals his Son, Jesus, who IS the Word, to us.

In it are the commandments and words that direct
us in the way in which we are to live to be found worthy of the kingdom of God.

We are worthy only through Jesus, and enter the Kingdom of God by being born again, John 3:3, not by our own deeds.

Therefore we need to make sure we are reading from the uncorrupted word of God.

The Spirit inspired the words of God to be written down, and the prophets to utter prophesies. He is the Spirit of truth and will not allow God's word to be corrupted.

Which to me and many other English readers is found in the King James Bible.

If you like, read, and study the King James Bible and it helps you to grow in your faith, know God better and become closer to him - fantastic; keep using it.
Just don't imply that anyone who does not use the KJB is not Christian or a weaker, ineffective or corrupt Christian.

The King James Bible was translated out of the original tongues with former
translations diligently compared and revised by the command of King James. 47 of the best scribes
in the Church of England worked from 1604 to 1611 to complete the work. Creating the original 1611 editon
of the King James Bible.

This may be true. I haven't studied the history, so I can't say.
But this was back in 1611. Language has changed since then - try telling a teenager today that they are wicked - and discoveries have been made.

The meaning of the words have never changed as they have in corrupted Bibles.

a) it is not very fair, and may even be dishonest, to call newer translations of the Bible 'corrupt' just because you don't like them.
b) Language has changed - 'wicked', sick, 'hot', 'cool' and so on do not mean today what they meant years ago. The NT was written in Koine Greek - informal, street language. In King James' time, people might well have said "thee" and "thou"; but no one does today. So that language does not reflect the informal, street language that the NT was written in.

Many of us read from the 1762 or 1769 or later editions of the King James Bible.

There you are then - you claim it is uncorrupt, yet even then you admit there are several versions.

You can have full confidence in your Kings James Bible.

I'd prefer to have full confidence in God - the Holy, true, pure, unchanging One - and in his Son Jesus, THE Word; just a thought.
I never read the KJB.

And I have no doubt there are many other blasphemous and corrupt things
do they to the word of God.

And I have absolutely no doubt the the Spirit of Truth can, and does, save, heal, teach, guide and bring people to Jesus through these Bibles which you call "corrupt."

In my experience, KJB only folk compare these other versions to the King James, and if there are any differences, it must be these newer Bibles which are at fault - because their starting point is that the KJB cannot be wrong.
Produce a proper analysis of ALL Bibles compared with the original Greek/Hebrew words; if the KJB consistently agrees with the Greek/Hebrew texts and never leaves any words out nor adds others in, that may be a starting point for discussion. Otherwise, it's not.

I believe there is none of that in the King James Bible and that it is the purest translation of original manuscripts for all English readers.

You are entitled to your belief. Though it's strange that the "pure, uncorrupt word of God" had at least 3 different versions.

Two points, which KJV onlyists have never answered:
1) People had the word of God long before King James was even thought of. Look how many people became Christians, were taught, became missionaries and clergy, performed miracles etc without having the KJV. Jesus and the early church never had this Bible.
2) There is no verse in the KJV which says that the KJV alone is the only pure, reliable, uncorrupt word of God. So it is preference and personable belief; not Scripture.
 
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robycop3

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For a more brief breakdown explanation on the seven KJV editions, type into Google the following keywords:

seven purification site:bibleprotector.com​

And click on the first link and it will lead you to a forum post via from Bible Protector. I say this because I am not allowed to post a direct link to another forum here at CF.

Mr. "Bible Protector" is a quack. I've answered his trash before.
 
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robycop3

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No offense, but by what you have said so far, I don't believe you will see the truth on this matter at this current time (Although I would love to be proven wrong here).

Believe what you will. I made my case. It is up to you to seek out the truth; If not, I cannot convince you of what you do not want to see. For notice how you did not answer any of my points.

As for Easter: I already addressed that issue in the contradictions thread link.
But I am not going to argue with it over somebody who does not want to believe the King James Bible is divine or perfect. For if you start off with a beginning point of unbelief that the KJV is divine and perfect, you will never see the truth of what I am trying to show you.

Sir, I have written an article proving "Easter" in the KJV is a goof. I'll post it here if you wish.

And, you didn't try to answer another goof I posted-the fact there's NO MANUSCRIPT SUPPORT for the words "and shalt be" in the KJV's Rev. 16:5. Thus, it ADDS to God's word, against His express command.

Again, the KJV is far-from-perfect. There are many more KJV goorfs & booboos I could list, but I only need a couple to disprove the "perfect" jive.

And besides that, it's NOT in OUR English. It's simply an outdated, "Model T version.
 
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robycop3

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Awww, what the heck ! I'll post the article proving "Easter" in the KJV's Acts 12:4 is a goof.
______________________________

No, "Easter" in the KJV's Acts 12:4 is a GOOF! And here's why:

First, EASTER DID NOT EXIST when Luke wrote the letter that became the Book of Acts. The translation is supposed to reflect the ORIGINAL AUTHOR'S words and intent, not those of the translators. As Luke was not making prophecy, he could NOT have been writing about something that didn't then exist.

Next, the context of Acts 12 clearly shows Herod was trying to please the Orthodox Jewish leadership of the area. His men had whacked James, which pleased those Jews, so Herod thought he'd please them even more by allowing them to deal with Peter themselves. He knew Peter was itinerant, so he busted Peter before he could leave the bailiwick.

But passover was then ongoing, as Acts 12:3 clearly sez. (For anyone who doesn't believe passover is SEVEN DAYS LONG, please read Ezekiel 45:21.) so Herod knew the Jews wouldn't deal with Peter until it was over. Thus, he intended to incarcerate Peter until the Jews were ready to take him.

(For those who say passover didn't stop the Jews from killing Jesus, please remember the Jews had the ROMANS kill Him.)

Next, had Easter as we know it then existed, or any other special observance of the date of Jesus' resurrection, NO ORTHODOX JEW, nor the pagan Herod woulda observed it. They were waiting for PASSOVER to end, plain-n-simple.

Now, there's no evidence that pascha meant anything other than passover in the 1st century. That Greek word is a translateration of the Hebrew "p'sach", the word GOD used for passover. It doesn't matter what pascha means TODAY. Luke wrote in the 1st century, not recently. The translation should reflect HIS written thoughts, not those of the translators.

Clearly, the AV translators knew Easter from passover, as they included an "Easter-Finder" in the AV 1611. They considered Easter & Christmas as the two holiest days of the year. Obviously, they did NOT confuse Easter with passover! (Tyndale had coined the word 'passover' in the 1530s.)

The word 'pascha' appears 29 times in the Greek mss. used to make the KJV's New Testament, and it's translated "passover" 28 times, with the context clearly indicating such. Thus, KJVOs cannot use the excuse that Easter & passover were interchangeable when the KJV was made. But again, many KJVOs attempting to justify the KJV's "Easter goof" seemta ignore Ezekiel 45:21, John 18:8, and Acts 12:3.

Fact is..."Easter" is a GOOF in the KJV's Acts 12:4.
 
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Radagast

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How do you align your belief that the KJV is the only true/pure Bible, with the Bible?

When I first got saved back in 1992, I ran into Gail Ripllinger's book, called "New Age Bible Versions," and it was all that was needed to convince me at the time.

full

"New Age Bible Versions" Book at Amazon
(Note: If you don't want to buy, you can ask your library to see if they can get in for you to check out).

Also, this article makes some good points in defense for the KJV:

Why I Am King James Only

In addition, I make some good points for the KJV in my post #92 within this thread.

Furthermore, I make some good points in this thread (that I had closed because of all the KJV hate going on there).

Reasons why I believe the KJV is the divinely inspired perfect Word of God.

Many think that there are contradictions in the KJV. I have resolved some popular ones in this thread here:

A Biblical Defense Against Supposed Contradictions in the KJV.

But for those who are skeptical and just want to tear down God's Word (the KJV), I got no tolerance for such nonsense. Believe, or don't believe. The choice is yours and all will one day have to give an account of themselves before a Holy God for their belief in His Word. There is a spirit at work behind those who have a strong hatred for the King James bible. Either one is a part of this spirit or they are seekers of the truth like good Bereans are supposed to be. It's like with atheists who want to bash the Bible. I won't let em. I preach the gospel to them, and move on. If they don't believe, then I did my part. I told them the truth. But I cannot force the truth upon them.

So I can give you the info., and you check it out; And you still don't accept it, I cannot force you to believe. My encouragement is for you to ask God to reveal the truth to you if He preserved His Word today and if it is the KJV. Then.... seek out the truth. I am so confident that the KJV is my Bible, I would die for it. I know it is God's pure Word. But this has to be revealed to you spiritually by being convicted by the overwhelming evidence that supports the KJV being God's pure Word.
 
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Awww, what the heck ! I'll post the article proving "Easter" in the KJV's Acts 12:4 is a goof.
______________________________

No, "Easter" in the KJV's Acts 12:4 is a GOOF! And here's why:

First, EASTER DID NOT EXIST when Luke wrote the letter that became the Book of Acts. The translation is supposed to reflect the ORIGINAL AUTHOR'S words and intent, not those of the translators. As Luke was not making prophecy, he could NOT have been writing about something that didn't then exist.

Next, the context of Acts 12 clearly shows Herod was trying to please the Orthodox Jewish leadership of the area. His men had whacked James, which pleased those Jews, so Herod thought he'd please them even more by allowing them to deal with Peter themselves. He knew Peter was itinerant, so he busted Peter before he could leave the bailiwick.

But passover was then ongoing, as Acts 12:3 clearly sez. (For anyone who doesn't believe passover is SEVEN DAYS LONG, please read Ezekiel 45:21.) so Herod knew the Jews wouldn't deal with Peter until it was over. Thus, he intended to incarcerate Peter until the Jews were ready to take him.

(For those who say passover didn't stop the Jews from killing Jesus, please remember the Jews had the ROMANS kill Him.)

Next, had Easter as we know it then existed, or any other special observance of the date of Jesus' resurrection, NO ORTHODOX JEW, nor the pagan Herod woulda observed it. They were waiting for PASSOVER to end, plain-n-simple.

Now, there's no evidence that pascha meant anything other than passover in the 1st century. That Greek word is a translateration of the Hebrew "p'sach", the word GOD used for passover. It doesn't matter what pascha means TODAY. Luke wrote in the 1st century, not recently. The translation should reflect HIS written thoughts, not those of the translators.

Clearly, the AV translators knew Easter from passover, as they included an "Easter-Finder" in the AV 1611. They considered Easter & Christmas as the two holiest days of the year. Obviously, they did NOT confuse Easter with passover! (Tyndale had coined the word 'passover' in the 1530s.)

The word 'pascha' appears 29 times in the Greek mss. used to make the KJV's New Testament, and it's translated "passover" 28 times, with the context clearly indicating such. Thus, KJVOs cannot use the excuse that Easter & passover were interchangeable when the KJV was made. But again, many KJVOs attempting to justify the KJV's "Easter goof" seemta ignore Ezekiel 45:21, John 18:8, and Acts 12:3.

Fact is..."Easter" is a GOOF in the KJV's Acts 12:4.

It's only a goof in your own mind.
Then don't believe the KJV. Move on.
It is to the glory of God to conceal a matter.
I believe the KJV just fine and the word "Easter" is not a problem for me.
But stick to your NIV, and ESV if that pleases you.
I know I don't want junk food. I want the real deal.
I know the KJV is the pure Word of God.
If you knew what I knew you would tremble on the ground.
But continue to keep believing as you do.
I know.... God will reveal all things in His timing.
 
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Sir, I have written an article proving "Easter" in the KJV is a goof. I'll post it here if you wish.

And, you didn't try to answer another goof I posted-the fact there's NO MANUSCRIPT SUPPORT for the words "and shalt be" in the KJV's Rev. 16:5. Thus, it ADDS to God's word, against His express command.

Again, the KJV is far-from-perfect. There are many more KJV goorfs & booboos I could list, but I only need a couple to disprove the "perfect" jive.

And besides that, it's NOT in OUR English. It's simply an outdated, "Model T version.

I don't care if you wrote a series of books your entire life on the topic. I am not interested in what your selling. If you start off with a position of unbelief towards the KJV, then unbelief is going to color your supposed evidence. Lawyers build a defense for each of their clients but either one of them is right, or neither of them. But oh boy, can they make what evidence they have to make their client look good.
 
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Mr. "Bible Protector" is a quack. I've answered his trash before.

Because you say so? Insults are not becoming of the saints.
In fact, Scripture warns against us biting and devouring one another.
So your attitude is actually a turn off in convincing me (even if you did have any supposed evidence in favor for your position).

What is your position alternative to the KJV?
Are you for the Modern Translation Bibles Only position?
The LXX Only position?
Original Languages Only position?

So what's your final Word of authority?
What's your Bible that you feel is God's perfect Word?
If the Original Languages (from the the Codex Vaticanus and the Codex Sinaiticus) is your final word of authority, then how can you have confidence that you truly are interpreting Hebrew, and Greek properly? Are these languages your native tongue? Even if they were, there is a vast difference between the Biblical versions of these languages. What if your interpreting them wrong?
 
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To all:

If I was marooned on an island and I had no knowledge of Christianity, my chances of understanding the Trinity is better if I had a KJV because 1 John 5:7 is the only verse in the Bible that point blank tells me about the Trinity. Sure, there are other verses that imply it, but none like 1 John 5:7 that gives me a more direct explanation.

If a fellow Christian of mine was being tormented by demonic activity, and it was a persistent spirit, and I did not know about the fasting part that was removed from some Modern bibles to cast it out, then I would be stuck and or in trouble. But with God's pure Word (the KJV), there is no such problem.

There are other things I could say, but this should suffice.
Let the doubters.... doubt.
Let the believers... believe.
 
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Radagast

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When I first got saved back in 1992, I ran into Gail Ripllinger's book, called "New Age Bible Versions," and it was all that was needed to convince me at the time.

full

A false and slanderous book.

If I was marooned on an island and I had no knowledge of Christianity, my chances of understanding the Trinity is better if I had a KJV because 1 John 5:7 is the only verse in the Bible that point blank tells me about the Trinity. Sure, there are other verses that imply it, but none like 1 John 5:7 that gives me a more direct explanation.

Quite possibly. But the "Johannine Comma" in that passage is not found in any Greek manuscript from before the fourteenth century. It is not part of the original Bible. It's a (Christian) addition to the Bible.
 
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A false and slanderous book.

I was only interested in the comparisons between the KJV and Modern Translations. For me: That was all I needed. So that aspect is not false and slanderous but it was merely factual. One can easily see that Modern Translations do water down:

  • The Trinity.
  • The Deity of Christ.
  • The Incarnation.
  • The Blood Atonement.
  • Holy Living.

You said:
Quite possibly. But the "Johannine Comma" in that passage is not found in any Greek manuscript from before the fourteenth century. It is not part of the original Bible. It's a (Christian) addition to the Bible.

I don't buy the false history lesson. I believe the Bible. I look to the good fruit in the here and now. The good fruit is telling me that my odds are better in knowing about the Trinity with 1 John 5:7 in my Bible. But you can hold on to the fake news history over good fruit in the here in now if you like. I choose to live for what I can see and observe today and not some dubious account made in the past.
 
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A false and slanderous book.

Modern Translations also place the name of the devil in replacement for Jesus and or for other holy things, etc.

See, the problem is that nobody thinks Satan has made any attack on God's Word. But it is the most logical deduction that he would do such a thing. In fact, he has (But most cannot see such an attack).

The popular view is that all bibles are good for the Christian today.

Yet, there is only one group who adhere to what is referred to as the pure Word. Maybe there is indeed something to that ole KJV.
 
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Not all bibles say exactly the same thing.
This can cause confusion like at the tower of babel.
But God is not the author of confusion.
So there can only be ONE Word.
Pick your sword wisely.
 
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You can nitpick the rare accidental errors in the KJV but you will not speak about the wicked intentional evils done in modern Bibles as proven in the first post, why?

I believe the KJV 1900 Cambridge Edition is without error, brother.
I have answered certain supposed contradictions in the KJV:

A Biblical Defense Against Supposed Contradictions in the KJV.

An error is only an error from our limited perspective and it does not mean there really is an error, brother. If we believe, and ask God to resolve the issue, He will in time give an answer.
 
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Radagast

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One can easily see that Modern Translations do water down:
  • The Trinity.
  • The Deity of Christ.
  • The Incarnation.
  • The Blood Atonement.
  • Holy Living.

No, they don't. That is false and slanderous. All those doctrines are fully present in the ESV, NIV, CSB, etc.

I look to the good fruit in the here and now.

Certainly those people who are spreading lies about modern Bible translations are not "bearing good fruit" (Matthew 7:17, John 8:44).

but you will not speak about the wicked intentional evils done in modern Bibles as proven in the first post, why?

There are no "wicked intentional evils done in modern Bibles." That is false and slanderous.
 
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No, they don't. That is false and slanderous. All those doctrines are fully present in the ESV, NIV, CSB, etc.

I said watered down and not eliminated. So no. It's not false in slanderous if you were to have done the study.

You said:
Certainly those people who are spreading lies about modern Bible translations are not "bearing good fruit" (Matthew 7:17, John 8:44).

From your limited point of view on this topic, I can understand how you might say that, but you need to do your homework and see if the KJV position may actually be true. If you have always rejected that position, then your not being a good Berean on the matter.

You said:
There are no "wicked intentional evils done in modern Bibles." That is false and slanderous.

This only shows that you don't know about them.

Here is just one.

Certain bible versions say that it is the dragon who is standing on the sea shore in Revelation. This is just evil and wrong.

We can see a Modern Version for Revelation 13:1 say this:

" The dragon stood on the shore of the sea. And I saw a beast coming out of the sea. It had ten horns and seven heads, with ten crowns on its horns, and on each head a blasphemous name." (Revelation 13:1).

See, if you know anything about Bible language, standing on something means that you "own it"; And the devil wants to own people. In the King James, John is standing on the seashore. Yet in many Bible versions the dragon (i.e. the devil) is standing on the seashore.

Why is this a problem?

Let's look at...

Genesis 22:17

"That in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the seashore; and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies;"

Did you catch that? God says to Abraham that He will multiply his seed as the stars of the heaven and as the sand which is upon the seashore where he will then possess the gate of his enemies (i.e. the devil and his kingdom). The apostle John who wrote Revelation was Jewish and he was the promised seed of Genesis 22 standing on the seashore in Revelation 13. It was not the dragon or the devil standing on the seashore.

For certain Modern Versions eliminate the part of the passage in Revelation 13:1 that says that John is standing on the seashore (When he refers to himself as "I").
 
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