I don't have time to go over everything in your post, but you began to try to prove that a law did exist prior to God giving the law through Moses, and I somewhat agreed. But then you began to sink, with statements like this...
Studyman:
It becomes clear that the Covenant God made with Abraham included God's Commandments, Statutes, and Laws.
Well, that's not true, as Apostle Paul showed in the Romans 4 Scripture I quoted to you.
Well Davy, it may not be recognized by some religions in this land. But Abraham most certainly had God's Laws, Commandments, and Statutes. And his obedience in these Laws played a part in God's Promise to Abraham's children. At least according to the Scriptures.
Gen. 26:
And I will make thy seed to multiply as the stars of heaven, and will give unto thy seed all these countries; and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed;
5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
Paul doesn't say anything contrary to these Word's of the ONE and only God in Romans.
Rom. 4: 1:
What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?
2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.
3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
What did God tell Abraham that he believed?
Gen. 12:1
Now the LORD had said unto Abram, Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father's house, unto a land that I will shew thee: 2 And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing: 3 And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed.
And did Abraham believe God?
Yes,
4 So Abram departed, as the LORD had spoken unto him;
So Abraham believed God. But satan also believes God. what makes satan different from Abraham?
James 2:
Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble. 20 But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?
21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar? 22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
Now according to mainstream religious theology, Paul and James are contradicting one another here.
But when a person understands that when Paul is speaking about "works of the law" for forgiveness/justification, he isn't speaking about God's Judgments and Definition of Sin, rather, he is speaking about the Levitical Priesthood sacrificial "Works" spelled out in the Covenant God made with the Levites exclusively for the forgiveness/atonement of sins, "til the Seed should come".
A "LAW" that was ADDED to God's Laws because of transgression of them, 430 years after Abraham was Blessed for obeying them.
4 Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. 5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. 6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
7 Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.
This aligns with Paul's teaching through out the scriptures.
Rom. 2:5
But after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up unto thyself wrath against the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God;
6 Who will render to every man according to his deeds:
7. To
them who by patient continuance in well doing (Like Abraham) seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life:
8 But unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, (Like Cain and the King of Sodom) indignation and wrath,
9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, (disobey God) of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;
10But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, (Obey God) to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile: 11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
"The Promise by Faith which Abraham believed, is from Abraham believing God would accomplish what He said He would do. And that belief by Faith on God's Promise, God counted it to Abraham as righteousness. There was no... connection with the law in that."
There is no connection to the Law God ADDED, 430 years after Abraham obeyed, to provide for the atonement of sins until Jesus came. But if a person "believes God" there is certainly a connection to God's Blessing on people who trust HIM enough to follow HIS instructions, and the curses on those who refuse to trust HIM and go their own way. It is a major tenant of the Gospel of Christ.
Rom. 1:16
For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
17 For therein (within the Gospel of Christ) is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith. (Not by the sacrificial "works of the Law" the Jews were still pushing on the Gentiles.)
18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness; 19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
So the religious doctrine which teaches Cain or the people of Sodom didn't know abut God's definition of sin, or HIS Judgments is simply not true if one believes the God of the Bible.
"And only AFTER Abraham had already believed God, did God give Abraham the token of circumcision. Apostle Paul made this distinction also about Abraham yet being in uncircumcision when he believed the Promise in both Romans 4 and Galatians 3."
Yes, the "new man" is who Abram became after he placed his trust in God. But had he not "Denied Himself" and "departed as the Lord had instructed him" he would have been no different than Cain or the King of Sodom.
"The devil sinned from the beginning, that's what John showed us in 1 John 3:8. That means even before... the time of Adam and Eve in God's Garden. By the time Satan was the adversary in God's Garden as "that old serpent", sin had already been done by Satan which caused his fall. God ended that old world when Satan rebelled in coveting His Throne when it was his job to guard it (Ezek.28)."
Not sure what you are saying here, or what it has to do with the two covenants.
"Since sin is defined by John as the transgression of the law, like you said, did that mean Satan was first to break God's laws? Yes. That is proof that God's laws existed already, but NOT the old covenant laws and things which Jesus nailed to His cross. I am not like many of my deceived brethren that believe Lord Jesus nailed all of God's laws to His cross. Obviously He didn't, as Paul showed in 1 Timothy 1."
Well I believe you are correct in teaching that Jesus didn't nail God's Judgments and definition of sin to the Cross.
But for sure, without any question, Jesus certainly nailed the Law which required that only a Levite could become a High Priest of God and only a Levite could provide for the forgiveness of sin by performing various "works of the Law". And there can be no question that this same Law didn't exist in Abraham's time, and that Abraham was justified "Apart from" the justification LAWS God gave Levi on Israels behalf, on mt. Sinai.
