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Yes, for you a passage means whatever you'd like it to mean, without recourse to context. Haven't we already established that much?
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WHY SOLA SCRIPTURA MAKES SENSE - A REBUTTAL
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A tough question for you: How do we go about establishing authority if there is no bible? (e.g. China and the muslims in many different locations).
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Ok let's prove your claims. Your claiming now I have left out context that changes the meaning of the scriptures to make the scriptures say something that they do not correct? Your claims is that scripture is not the inspired Word of God. I posted to you that the scriptures teach the opposite of what your teachings and posted 2 TIMOTHY 3:16 ALL SCRIPTURE IS GIVEN BY INSPIRATION OF GOD AND IS PROFITABLE FOR DOCTRINE, FOR REPROOF, FOR CORRECTION, FOR INSTRUCTION IN RIGHTEOUSNESS.
Now you please tell me how context changes the meaning of the scriptures here. If you cannot why do you deny God's Word?
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Generally speaking, I can't debate with a moving target. It's pointless to try.
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It is not a tough question at all. I did ask you a question first however and have not forgotten. I posted earlier that the scriptures teach, Faith comes by hearing and hearing by the Word of God *ROMANS 10:17. If we are only saved by GRACE THROUGH FAITH which comes by the Word of God *EPHESIANS 2:8, how can you have faith that is a requirement for salvation when there is no Word when it is written whatsoever is not of faith is sin *ROMANS 14:23?
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Indeed. For some if scripture is provided that shows why their claims are not true, it is easier to run away then address the scriptures provided that show why their claims are not true. This is in fulfillment of JOHN 3:16-21. Do you know what these scriptures mean?
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If the scriptures teach that faith comes by hearing and hearing by the Word of God {Jesus speaking to our hearts} *ROMANS 10:17 and we are only saved by GRACE THROUGH FAITH which comes by the Word of God {Jesus} *EPHESIANS 2:8, how can you have faith that is a requirement for salvation when there is no Word {but He is there saving people, what do you mean "when there is no Word?"} when it is written whatsoever is not of faith is sin *ROMANS 14:23?
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Come on YAW you can do better than that. You cannot answer that question can you. What you have provided here does not make any sense to the scriptures provided. Do you want to have another go?
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No need I only believe and follow God's Word. Do you have any to share? You have not proven anything you have said except that you do not believe God is in control of his Word have you? Please correct me if I am wrong.
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Ok no problem. Read the question slowly and take your time. It is based on the scriptures from ROMANS 10:17; and EPHESIANS 2:8 and ROMANS 14:23
Now if FAITH comes by hearing and hearing by the WORD OF GOD *ROMANS 10:17. If we are only saved by GRACE THROUGH FAITH which comes by the Word of God *EPHESIANS 2:8, how can you have faith that is a requirement for salvation when there is NO WORD (Faith comes by the Word of God) when it is written whatsoever is not of faith is sin *ROMANS 14:23?
So NO WORD = NO FAITH and NO FAITH = SIN and NO SALVATION
Hope that is more helpful.
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Other parts of the new testment scriptures do..
2 TIMOTHY 2:15-16 [15], Study to show yourself approved to God, a workman that needs not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.[16], But shun profane and vain babblings: for they will increase to more ungodliness.
As we are warned elswhere...
2 PETER 3:16 As also in all his letters, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, to their own destruction.
No exegesis is useful however if God is not your guide and teacher *JOHN 14:26; JOHN 16:13; JOHN 8:31-32; 1 JOHN 2:27; HEBREWS 8:11.
Hope this is useful.
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Right, but when you say NO WORD=NO FAITH you must be referring to the word in Romans 10:17. The Word in Romans 10:17 is the Word of Christ, that is, the good news of the gospel. It is good news because Jesus has come to us to bring us salvation. And now taking this back to where we began, the church in China and many Muslims around the world were saved by Jesus bringing them salvation. The gospel came to them. And this is how all salvation occurs but not always so clearly. Jesus comes to save a person because He is the highest authority. No bible needed. Just the Living Word.
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YAW you just hand waived the answer to the question I provied and asked of you. There was a reason why I asked it, Do you know what it means? Only asking this as this will help the discussion. For example as sumarized earlier what do you think NO WORD = NO FAITH and NO FAITH = SIN and NO SALVATION means? Do you think there can be salvation without the Word of God?
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It accepts the books of the Bible that have been the common possession of all Christians since the time of the councils that you go on and on about.
The notion that "Sola Scriptura cannot be true"...because it holds that we should be guided by the Bible rather than by legend, custom, folklore, or speculation and opinion (of "Early Church Fathers" or anyone else) doesn't even make sense as an argument.
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Which is exactly my point. We accept as a given that the identified books really are Apostolic only because the early Church recognized them as such - not because of anything in the documents themselves.
The formulation of the Westminster Confession is that "The whole counsel of God, concerning all things necessary for his own glory, man's salvation, faith, and life, is either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture". That's manifestly absurd, given the undeniable fact that Sacred Scripture doesn't contain a list of its own canon and that it's not possible to deduce the canon from the texts themselves.
At this point someone usually quotes a bible passage to try to prove that I'm wrong. But that assumes that the passage quoted is actually Sacred Scripture, which begs the question.
I'm not aware that anyone has made that argument. I certainly have not.
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