When did the Old Covenant cease?

Dorothy Mae

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I think it is more than that. Jews were judged by the law. and there was a curse coming upon them specifically which was prophesied in the law. This curse and wrath was preached by John to warn them to escape Gods wrath in the one who came after him. I think the Apostles all were in a race knowing that that wrath was going to fall shortly, to save as many as they could from it. But the prophetic utterance concerning this wrath would later on be turned against the nations which brought that punishment.
OK, although I think the wrath fell in 70 AD.
 
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Soyeong

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Matt 27:51 indicated a desecration of the temple at Jesus death.

This would suggest the authority of the priesthood was withdrawn at this time.

Some believe that this didn't happen until AD 70...

My view is that the temple continued to operate as a lifeless shell bouyed by religious tradition until the final destruction under the Romans.

I therefore conclude that the Old covenant ceased when Jesus fulfilled the Law and died.

Where is the evidence that this did not happen until AD 70 ?

Comments appreciated.

There are many verses that describe the Mosaic Covenant as being a marriage between Israel and God, such as with God describing Himself as a husband to her (Jeremiah 31:33) or with her unfaithfulness being referred to as adultery, and a marriage covenant ends with the death of either party, so it ended with Christ's death. In Hebrews 8:4, it spoke about offerings still being made in accordance with the Mosaic Law, so it was still in effect in accordance with the New Covenant. Furthermore, it wouldn't have had any power to prevent Jesus from being a priest if he were here on earth if it it had stopped being in effect.

In Romans 7:1-4, Paul addressed those verses to those who knew the law, and in Deuteronomy 24:1-4, a woman was forbidden to return to her first husband after she had been divorced and been with another man. In Jeremiah 3:8, God wrote the Northern Kingdom a certificate of divorce, yet He continued to call for her to return to Him, so it was a mystery how God would accomplish that because the only way that she could be released from her adultery would be if first marriage were nullified through the death of her husband. So in Romans 7:4, we have died to the law of marriage to our husband through His (Christ's) death in order to be free to belong to another, to him whom was raised from the dead in order to bear fruit for God. So the Mosaic and New Covenants are all about God's marriage, divorce, and remarriage to Israel.

"To fulfill the law" means "to cause God's will as made known in His law to be obeyed as it should be” (NAS Greek Lexicon pleroo 2c3). After Jesus said he came to fulfill the law in Matthew 5, he proceeded to fulfill it six times throughout the rest of the chapter by teaching how to correctly obey it or by completing our understanding of it. In Galatians 5:14, loving our neighbor fulfills the entire law, so it refers to something that countless people have done, not to something unique that only Jesus did. In Galatians 6:2, bearing one another's burdens fulfills the Law of Christ, so you should interpret that in the same way as you interpret fulfilling the Law of Moses.
 
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coffee4u

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Matt 27:51 indicated a desecration of the temple at Jesus death.

This would suggest the authority of the priesthood was withdrawn at this time.

Some believe that this didn't happen until AD 70...

My view is that the temple continued to operate as a lifeless shell bouyed by religious tradition until the final destruction under the Romans.

I therefore conclude that the Old covenant ceased when Jesus fulfilled the Law and died.

Where is the evidence that this did not happen until AD 70 ?

Comments appreciated.

I believe when Jesus said "It is finished" ('it' being all of his work) and God the Father ripped the temple curtain separating the Holy of Holies from the rest of the temple.

51 At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. The earth shook, the rocks split 52 and the tombs broke open. The bodies of many holy people who had died were raised to life. 53 They came out of the tombs after Jesus’ resurrection and went into the holy city and appeared to many people.
 
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Behold

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I think it is more than that. Jews were judged by the law. and there was a curse coming upon them specifically which was prophesied in the law. This curse and wrath was preached by John to warn them to escape Gods wrath in the one who came after him. I think the Apostles all were in a race knowing that that wrath was going to fall shortly, to save as many as they could from it. But the prophetic utterance concerning this wrath would later on be turned against the nations which brought that punishment.

Before "the time of the gentiles" "Paul is the apostle to the Gentiles" which is why He wrote about 75% of the NT and 99% of the Church Doctrine......... before the "time of the Gentiles"< God was dealing with JEWS...>HEBREWS...... Jesus CAME TO = the house of ISRAEL.
After the Time of the Gentiles ends, the Great Tribulation starts...and God is again going to take up dealing with that Jew.
 
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Dorothy Mae

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Yes his intent was love and this love for the Jews was profound. The plan may have been revealed by the Holy Spirit, who knows?
I know. The plan has been revealed. Is it a mystery?
 
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Dorothy Mae

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Before "the time of the gentiles" "Paul is the apostle to the Gentiles" which is why He wrote about 75% of the NT and 99% of the Church Doctrine......... before the "time of the Gentiles"< God was dealing with JEWS...>HEBREWS...... Jesus CAME TO = the house of ISRAEL.
After the Time of the Gentiles ends, the Great Tribulation starts...and God is again going to take up dealing with that Jew.
God gave them 40 years and many did believe. But the kingdom of God was taken away from the Jews and given elsewhere. It is not going back. The great Tribulation is over and during that time dealt with them essentially pouring out his wrath on them for all the blood of his prophets shed over the centuries by them as Jesus said.

The Gospel is going out and the Jews are mainly an unreached people group. They must be “grafted in” to Jesus to join the kingdom of God.
 
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ralliann

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Before "the time of the gentiles" "Paul is the apostle to the Gentiles" which is why He wrote about 75% of the NT and 99% of the Church Doctrine......... before the "time of the Gentiles"< God was dealing with JEWS...>HEBREWS...... Jesus CAME TO = the house of ISRAEL.
After the Time of the Gentiles ends, the Great Tribulation starts...and God is again going to take up dealing with that Jew.
I am not sure how this speaks to my comments? Timing according to the law is a curse to Jew first then Gentiles. Israel being judged by the law and Gentiles judged on how they treated the them. I suspect this is what John came to warn and preach concerning an escape from the coming wrath.
 
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ralliann

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In Romans 7:1-4, Paul addressed those verses to those who knew the law, and in Deuteronomy 24:1-4, a woman was forbidden to return to her first husband after she had been divorced and been with another man. In Jeremiah 3:8, God wrote the Northern Kingdom a certificate of divorce, yet He continued to call for her to return to Him, so it was a mthe only way that she could be released from her adultery would be if first marriage were nullified through the death of her husband. So in Romans 7:4, we have died to the law of marriage to our husband through His (Christ's) death in order to be free to belong to another, to him whom was raised from the dead in order to bear fruit for God. So the Mosaic and New Covenants are all about God's marriage, divorce, and remarriage to Israel.
where is the idea of an adulteress being released from her adultery by the death of her husband? I see Christ teaching that a woman whos husband has died is released from from the law of marriage to her her husband so that she marrying another is not guilty of adultery?
The Hebrews practiced polygamy and a man was not an adulterer for taking a concubine?
 
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