Paul Enforces Animal Husbandry Law

pasifika

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Do you agree that the law of Moses is the law of God?
Law of God is the law in our mind...the law of Moses or law of Christ is the law that must be in our hearts...according to the law of Moses we obey the law by works, according to the law of Christ we obey the law by Faith..
 
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DamianWarS

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This is why you are failing to understand Paul, and see what he is actually saying - your eisegesis is hindering you. You cannot see the bigger picture because you, in your words, are trying to force a square peg in a round hole.
There is nothing in this response that is constructive, I could copy and paste it, change a couple words, and say it right back to you. Do you wish to engage or just keep repeating that I'm wrong, cause I'm interested only in the former.
 
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Dkh587

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Law of God is the law in our mind...the law of Moses or law of Christ is the law that must be in our hearts...according to the law of Moses we obey the law by works, according to the law of Christ we obey the law by Faith..
The law of God & Moses is a book that requires being read(Genesis-Deuteronomy). For example, Josiah had to read the law of Moses & God to know what it said for him to repent

2 Kings 22:10-13
And Shaphan the scribe showed the king, saying, Hilkiah the priest has delivered me a book. And Shaphan read it before the king.

And it came to pass, when the king had heard the words of the book of the law, that he tore his clothes.

And the king commanded Hilkiah the priest, and Ahikam the son of Shaphan, and Achbor the son of Michaiah, and Shaphan the scribe, and Asaiah a servant of the king's, saying,

Go you, inquire of Yahweh for me, and for the people, and for all Judah, concerning the words of this book that is found: for great is the wrath of Yahweh that is kindled against us, because our fathers have not hearkened unto the words of this book, to do according unto all that which is written concerning us

You have to hear it to know what it says - Josiah didn’t say “you don’t have to read it - it’s already in my mind”

The wrath was kindled because their ancestors did not obey the words in the book, not because they didn’t obey the words in their minds.

Only when you have faith can you obey the law of Moses & God - if you don’t have faith, you don’t obey.

the Israelites were constantly rebuked for not believing and not obeying God’s law, the law of Moses. No belief, no obedience.
 
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HARK!

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Jesus said,
"Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil." (Matthew 5:17).
Jesus came not to abolish the Law (in the sense of destroying all forms of Law), but Jesus came to fulfill the Law (i.e. to nail to the cross those ordinances that were against us [like the Old Covenant ceremonial laws], and Jesus came to give us a more fulfilled and perfect way of obeying God via the commands that come directly from Him and His followers). For Jesus offered a more perfect way of loving God, and loving our neighbor (Which of course is only possible via if we are first saved by God's grace through faith).

You could have saved yourself a whole lot of keystrokes; if you had just read the very next verse:

(CLV) Mt 5:18
For verily, I am saying to you, Till heaven and earth should be passing by, one iota or one serif may by no means be passing by from the law till all should be occurring.
 
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You could have saved yourself a whole lot of keystrokes; if you had just read the very next verse:

(CLV) Mt 5:18
For verily, I am saying to you, Till heaven and earth should be passing by, one iota or one serif may by no means be passing by from the law till all should be occurring.

The King James says till all be fulfilled. This means that Heaven and Earth will not pass away till the Law AND THE PROPHETS be fulfilled.

"For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law [i.e. The Law and the prophets - see verse 17], till all be fulfilled." (Matthew 5:18) (KJV).

So the "Law" portion of the "Law and the Prophets" has been fulfilled by Christ on the cross (Colossians 2:14), and "prophets" portion of the "Law and the Prophets" still needs to be fulfilled before heaven and Earth will pass away. The word "Law" in this instance (based on verse 17) is a shortened abbreviation for the phrase: "The Law and the Prophets."
 
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pasifika

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The law of God & Moses is a book that requires being read(Genesis-Deuteronomy). For example, Josiah had to read the law of Moses & God to know what it said for him to repent

2 Kings 22:10-13


You have to hear it to know what it says - Josiah didn’t say “you don’t have to read it - it’s already in my mind”

The wrath was kindled because their ancestors did not obey the words in the book, not because they didn’t obey the words in their minds.

Only when you have faith can you obey the law of Moses & God - if you don’t have faith, you don’t obey.

the Israelites were constantly rebuked for not believing and not obeying God’s law, the law of Moses. No belief, no obedience.
Abel, Enoch, Noah, Abraham etc didn't have the written law but they live righteous through Faith...Hebrews 11...

The written law given 430years in Sinai after the covenant with Abraham...Galatians 3:17...
 
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HARK!

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The King James says till all be fulfilled. This means that Heaven and Earth will not pass away till the Law AND THE PROPHETS be fulfilled.

"For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law [i.e. The Law and the prophets - see verse 17], till all be fulfilled." (Matthew 5:18) (KJV).

So the Old Law has been fulfilled by Christ, and "prophets" portion of the Law still needs to be fulfilled until heaven and Earth will pass away.

Well, you might start by using a literal translation. Then just look at it in context.

(CLV) Mt 5:17
"You should not infer that I came to demolish the law or the prophets. I came not to demolish, but to fulfill.

He came to fulfill both the law and the prophets. That task is a work in progress. We still are awaiting his second coming. Then will come the Millennial reign. The Levitical Priesthood will resume making sacrifices (according to the law) in the Kingdom to come. You see, the law and the prophets are tied together. I suppose that is why Yahshua tied them together in that sentence. Now the Greek word used for fulfill in this sentence is πληρωσαι G4137. (FILL cause, FILL, fulFILL, fill full, complete)

(CLV) Mt 5:18
For verily, I am saying to you, Till heaven and earth should be passing by, one iota or one serif may by no means be passing by from the law till all should be occurring.

The word that the KJV uses for fulfill in this verse, is the Greek word γενηται G1096 (BECOME, come to be, come into being, occur)

It's completely different word; with a completely different meaning. I'm certain that Yahshua chose two different words for a very good reason. King James and his bunch have subtracted from, and added to, scripture.

All has not occurred.

You are following the same anti-Torah bias that King James and his ilk laid out for you to follow. It's a snare.


Prove all things. Hold fast to that which is good.

Shalom
 
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HARK!

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Abel, Enoch, Noah, Abraham etc didn't have the written law but they live righteous through Faith...Hebrews 11...

(CLV) Gn 26:5
inasmuch as your father Abraham hearkened to My voice and kept My charge, My instructions, My statutes and My laws.

I thought that I went through all of the occurrences in the Torah, where the law was kept before Moses wrote it down. Maybe it wasn't you; but I produced plenty of examples.
 
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pasifika

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(CLV) Gn 26:5
inasmuch as your father Abraham hearkened to My voice and kept My charge, My instructions, My statutes and My laws.

I thought that I went through all of the occurrences in the Torah, where the law was kept before Moses wrote it down. Maybe it wasn't you; but I produced plenty of examples.
Why do you think Paul mentioned that it was introduced 430years after the covenant with Abraham if the written law was already there before Sinai?
 
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pasifika

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Well, you might start by using a literal translation. Then just look at it in context.

(CLV) Mt 5:17
"You should not infer that I came to demolish the law or the prophets. I came not to demolish, but to fulfill.

He came to fulfill both the law and the prophets. That task is a work in progress. We still are awaiting his second coming. Then will come the Millennial reign. The Levitical Priesthood will resume making sacrifices (according to the law) in the Kingdom to come. You see, the law and the prophets are tied together. I suppose that is why Yahshua tied them together in that sentence. Now the Greek word used for fulfill in this sentence is πληρωσαι G4137. (FILL cause, FILL, fulFILL, fill full, complete)

(CLV) Mt 5:18
For verily, I am saying to you, Till heaven and earth should be passing by, one iota or one serif may by no means be passing by from the law till all should be occurring.

The word that the KJV uses for fulfill in this verse, is the Greek word γενηται G1096 (BECOME, come to be, come into being, occur)

It's completely different word; with a completely different meaning. I'm certain that Yahshua chose two different words for a very good reason. King James and his bunch have subtracted from, and added to, scripture.

All has not occurred.

You are following the same anti-Torah bias that King James and his ilk laid out for you to follow. It's a snare.


Prove all things. Hold fast to that which is good.

Shalom
The law and the Prophets testify of Gods Righteousness....
That's is what Jesus had fulfilled...He had fulfilled God's Righteousness for fallen man so He can give that Righteousness to us who believed...
 
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Well, you might start by using a literal translation. Then just look at it in context.

(CLV) Mt 5:17
"You should not infer that I came to demolish the law or the prophets. I came not to demolish, but to fulfill.

He came to fulfill both the law and the prophets. That task is a work in progress. We still are awaiting his second coming. Then will come the Millennial reign. The Levitical Priesthood will resume making sacrifices (according to the law) in the Kingdom to come. You see, the law and the prophets are tied together. I suppose that is why Yahshua tied them together in that sentence. Now the Greek word used for fulfill in this sentence is πληρωσαι G4137. (FILL cause, FILL, fulFILL, fill full, complete)

(CLV) Mt 5:18
For verily, I am saying to you, Till heaven and earth should be passing by, one iota or one serif may by no means be passing by from the law till all should be occurring.

The word that the KJV uses for fulfill in this verse, is the Greek word γενηται G1096 (BECOME, come to be, come into being, occur)

It's completely different word; with a completely different meaning. I'm certain that Yahshua chose two different words for a very good reason. King James and his bunch have subtracted from, and added to, scripture.

All has not occurred.

You are following the same anti-Torah bias that King James and his ilk laid out for you to follow. It's a snare.


Prove all things. Hold fast to that which is good.

Shalom

Nobody can truly know a dead language. They are only guessing and taking it by faith based on what James Strong and his buddies wrote. I believe the King James Bible (Cambridge Edition circa 1900) is the divinely inspired Word of God for our day. I believe it is perfect and without error. By comparison to other Modern Translations, the King James is superior. The devil's name is placed in Modern Translations for the good things of God; Certain doctrines are watered down like the Trinity, the deity of Christ, the blood atonement, and holy living, etc. The same evidences that back up the Hebrew and Greek as being divine in origin can be found with the King James Bible. Here are the 4 major reasons why I believe the KJV is divinely inspired:

Reasons why I believe the KJV is the divinely inspired perfect Word of God.
 
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HARK!

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I believe the King James Bible (Cambridge Edition circa 1900) is the divinely inspired Word of God for our day. I believe it is perfect and without error

Was that the version that you just quoted with the corrupted text?

I'm not familiar with that version. Did they rewrite the old one, in light of the abundance of manuscripts that have been discovered since the original was written? They didn't have much to work with at that time.

How does the version that you tout, stand to Textual Criticism?

List of major textual variants in the New Testament - Wikipedia
 
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Dkh587

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Abel, Enoch, Noah, Abraham etc didn't have the written law but they live righteous through Faith...Hebrews 11...

The written law given 430years in Sinai after the covenant with Abraham...Galatians 3:17...
The full law was revealed to Israel as a nation, yes, but we have evidence of certain things in the law, prior to the law, were already in existence Genesis 38:8-10, Deuteronomy 25:5-6

And Noah knew which animals were clean and unclean, yet we have no record of God telling him.
 
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Was that the version that you just quoted with the corrupted text?

I'm not familiar with that version. Did they rewrite the old one, in light of the abundance of manuscripts that have been discovered since the original was written? They didn't have much to work with at that time.

How does the version that you tout, stand to Textual Criticism?

List of major textual variants in the New Testament - Wikipedia

The King James was purified 7 times (Which is in line with what Scripture says about the "Word of God"). Check out this PDF article here:

KJV - Purified Seven Times.

To see explanations to supposed contradictions in the KJV, check out this thread here:

A Biblical Defense Against Supposed Contradictions in the KJV.

Again, to check out why the KJV is divine, and perfect, see this CF thread:

Reasons why I believe the KJV is the divinely inspired perfect Word of God.
 
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pasifika

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The full law was revealed to Israel as a nation, yes, but we have evidence of certain things in the law, prior to the law, were already in existence Genesis 38:8-10, Deuteronomy 25:5-6

And Noah knew which animals were clean and unclean, yet we have no record of God telling him.

It shows before the law was introduced, Abraham, Noah etc already know how to live righteous...they show mercy, just and faithfulness which are what the requirements for the written law in Sinai...just like Paul said in Romans 2:14..."indeed when the Gentiles who do not have the law do by nature things required by the law, they are law for themselves, eventhough they do not have the law. They show the requirements of the law is written in their hearts....

People before law was given know some animals are good to eat and some don't, they show mercy and kindness, etc...they show the requirements of the law is written in their hearts....
 
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HARK!

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How does the version that you tout, stand to Textual Criticism?

List of major textual variants in the New Testament - Wikipedia

The King James was purified 7 times (Which is in line with what Scripture says about the "Word of God"). Check out this PDF article here:

KJV - Purified Seven Times.

To see explanations to supposed contradictions in the KJV, check out this thread here:

A Biblical Defense Against Supposed Contradictions in the KJV.

Again, to check out why the KJV is divine, and perfect, see this CF thread:

Reasons why I believe the KJV is the divinely inspired perfect Word of God.

I was a KJV guy for most of my life. My versions were in Old English. I switched to the CLV for several reasons, one of them being the added verses in the KJV.

Although I've come to find flaws in the CLV; it's superior to the KJV that I've read for most of my life. I'm content with CLV for now. I have a list of translations which might be more accurate than the CLV; and I have future plans to check them out. I don't want to do extensive research on what I've left behind.

I asked you how the KJV is different than the KJV that I abandoned for its' many flaws.

Here is the specific question again:

How does the version that you tout, stand to Textual Criticism?

List of major textual variants in the New Testament - Wikipedia
 
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HARK!

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And Noah knew which animals were clean and unclean, yet we have no record of God telling him.

And Abimelech, a heathen, knew that adultery was wrong before Moses was given the law.
 
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Dorothy Mae

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The full law was revealed to Israel as a nation, yes, but we have evidence of certain things in the law, prior to the law, were already in existence Genesis 38:8-10, Deuteronomy 25:5-6
Jesus added a new law so they could not have had the “full” law before him.
And Noah knew which animals were clean and unclean, yet we have no record of God telling him.
Not everything every man knows is ever written down. The man walked with God his whole life but very few words or events in his life are recorded.

The but that is written is enough for us to believe and receive eternal life.
 
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Dkh587

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Jesus added a new law so they could not have had the “full” law before him.Not everything every man knows is ever written down. The man walked with God his whole life but very few words or events in his life are recorded.

The but that is written is enough for us to believe and receive eternal life.
Everything Christ taught was not necessarily *new*, it was more of an expounding on what was already taught, but magnifying and teaching it in a fuller, more robust context.
 
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Dorothy Mae

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Everything Christ taught was not necessarily *new*, it was more of an expounding on what was already taught, but magnifying and teaching it in a fuller, more robust context.
He said he was giving a new commandment not repeating an old one.
 
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