I've now gone over most of what I'm going to. I probably won't read your 1Ti 2:9 paper, because I'm already very familiar with that text's misuse.
Actually, the paper doesn't deal with the passage's
misuse... it exposes the passage's
mistranslation. I think you'll appreciate it.
I think that your text on the purposes of clothing is the one with the strongest apologies.
Thanks!
1) Regarding Ervah: As you pointed out, nakedness isn't necessarily involved, but sexual expression is (and is somewhat loosely defined). Do you agree then that someone can be fully clothed and yet in violation of ervah? For example: JLo's superbowl dance was ervah, and would have been ervah even if she wore a burka.
Let me clarify something...
ervah doesn't simply mean using the body for "sexual expression"... the core meaning of the word is not
replaced... it's simply not alone. Exposure of the body is definitely part of it... even if total "nakedness" is not.
Also,
ervah is not a rule to be "violated"... it is a noun that refers to body exposure with "intent."
The SB show was definitely sexual. Could it be described as
ervah, since there was so much body exposure? Possibly. But remember,
ervah does not carry with it the presumption of immorality in the expression... context is what determines that. I suggest that the SB show finds its condemnation in Habakkuk 2:15... more on that below.
2) If you agree with that, then also: Is it sinful for us to look upon such ervah if we do so without coveting? For example, if I tell another Christian: "Watch this superbowl halftime video, and tell me whether you find it offensive," have I sinned by asking him to look upon ervah? I think this question is important because ervah is constantly offered to us -- even apart from media which involves nude sex acts.
No, I don't think that the exposure to
ervah in itself is sinful. If I happen to walk in on a husband and wife while they are making love, I have not sinned by seeing them, nor have they sinned by being seen. But if I choose to use that sight to inflame my own lusts, or they are subverting the goodness of their union to attempt to entice me to sin, then there's a problem.
A lot of good things that we know about a healthy marital sexual relationship had to be learned by people who studied the act of copulation... not for illicit purposes, but to understand ourselves better... and to honor the sacredness and goodness of the act. Is that wrong? I think it's hard to make such a case... so... asking someone to watch the SB show for the purpose of learning and making a moral evaluation would be in the realm of learning and the desire to uphold righteousness. That said, we have to be careful that anyone we encourage to watch it is mature enough to not turn it into a personal sexual experience in their own minds. That would fall under the teaching of Romans 14 and the "weaker brother" instruction.
Keep in mind Jesus' instructions in Mark 7... nothing outside of us can defile us simply by entering into us... that includes what we see. If "lust/covetous" happens in our hearts in response to what we see, then it means the lust was already there, and it is being
revealed... not caused by the external stimuli.
3) Given your interpretation of shame, how do you deal with Mar 5:15? Is your argument that demons made him naked to remove his protection from the elements? Or because he lacked clothing that showed his social status? etc.
There's no way to know exactly why the man lived naked... fact is that he--empowered by the demons--refused to wear chains and shackles, too. Most likely, his nakedness was simply the result of the man being completely separate from society.
With our modern aversion to nudity, we read this account and see the nakedness is THE primary indicator of the demonic problem. But I think the complete inability for the society to contain him was the real indicator... and clothing would simply be something that such a tormented person would have no concerns about maintaining in wearable condition (let alone having a resource for getting new clothes).
Once he is healed, he's described as "sitting down at the feet of Jesus,", "clothed," and "in his right mind." ALL
three of these things were indicators of his healing... and his soundness to reenter society as a healthy soul, no longer tormented by the enemy.
Yet, we focus on the one. Why? Because we are so biased against public nudity in our modern mindset. It's NOT the main point--nor the main indicator--in the account (Mark 5 doesn't even mention that the guy was unclothed! Only Luke 8:27 tells us that!)
The notion that the "demons made him naked" is based on a bias that nudity is simply wrong. And that notion is countered by another account in the bible of a man overtake by a "Spiritual Power" and caused to be naked... King Saul!
In 1 Samuel 19, Saul is out of his mind (literally tormented at times by demons!) and he's chasing David trying to kill him. Saul ends up going to Samuel and the other prophets in search of David. And then the Spirit of God (1 Samuel 19:23 !!) comes upon Saul and he begins prophesying naked!
So... a clothed demonized man comes under the power of God's Spirit and is then found
naked and in his right mind!! (Surely acting under the influence of God's Spirit and "prophesying" can be considered a "right mind").
Does anyone bother pointing out that passage about Saul when talking about demonized people and nudity? Nope. Because it doesn't support the bias.
4) If nakedness is good, how do you deal with Hab 2:15, which apparently refers directly to the genitalia? To help understand my difficulty with this text, imagine replacing "nakedness" with any other good thing. For example: "Woe unto him who gets his neighbor drunk, to entice him to become more loving." Getting someone drunk is bad, but it was doubly bad because the enticer did it to look at the other's nakedness.
To me, this is the most significant passage in all the bible that speaks against inappropriate contentography.
Woe to you who make your neighbors drink, Who mix in your venom even to make them drunk So as to look on their ervah [nakedness]! (Habakkuk 2:15)
As already noted,
ervah, (nakedness) means more than simple nudity... it's consistent usage in the OT infers active sexual use of that nakedness.
So, "look on their nakedness" would seem to imply "watch them have sex."
And I suggest that you can consider the "make your neighbors drink" to be--in essence--using personal resources (money/wine) as a "pay-off" to get the neighbors in the desired state of mind to perform sexually.
Woe to the person who pays money to watch other people have sex.
That's the essence of inappropriate content.
Is that a stretch for that passage? I don't think so. Besides, are we to assume that human appetite for inappropriate content is only a modern problem? Certainly, not... since prostitution has been around long before the bible times.
One more note... your translation said, "...entice him to become more loving." That's an interesting take... but it's clearly based upon the use of "uncover the nakedness of" in Leviticus 18... which equates uncovering (looking upon) nakedness as actually participating sexually with that person. That's interesting to consider, although I suspect it might be difficult to make a very strong case to support (different author and context), but it certainly is not in conflict with what I've suggested.
Back to J-Lo and the SB show... we (culture/NFL/Pepsi) certainly DID pay money to watch someone act very sexually for our "entertainment"... Woe to us for that!
5) In Nah 3:5, God doesn't take their clothing (which would be a sign of poverty/defeat). Rather, he "lifts" their skirts and exposes their shame.
5a) How do you reconcile this usage of shame?
5b) More importantly, how do you defend your view of nakedness as not improper, considering its usage here and that it supposedly refers (again) directly to the genitals?
That's not how I read the passage.
'Behold, I am against you,' declares the Lord of hosts; 'And I will lift up your skirts over your face, And show to the nations your nakedness And to the kingdoms your disgrace.' (Nahum 3:5 - NASB)
God's purpose is to "show to the nations" the sinful conduct (adultery/
ervah) of the city/nation of Nineveh. So, to start with, the narrative is metaphorical. It makes sense--in this word picture--to "lift the skirt" to reveal the "adultery/ervah" of Nineveh. God is declaring that He will show the kingdoms Nineveh's "disgrace" (it's a different Hebrew word than the typical word for "shame" in the OT) because of their sinful conduct... as a city/nation.
So, does this passage really address "shame" as I've defined it? No, I don't think so. Does it establish a link between simple nudity and "shame" or sin? Again, no, I don't think it does.