And I believe TWO sources of tongues were represented that day. One from our spirit and one from the Holy Spirit. Both of which are heard through our body, but not coming from our soul/mind.
But you are entitled to your "belief". Personally I believe I proved otherwise with the word phone being used 2 verses before they spoke the languages of men. So IF I'm wrong, I believe I"m standing on scripture and not just my opinionated 'belief'. Not trying to sound rude....just challenging you to hopefully seek for more as I did along with so many others.
"In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established."
(2 Corinthians 13:1).
The idea of tongues (
that we are aware of) took place at Pentecost and we know that men were speaking real foreign languages to each other by the working of the Spirit.
You said:
A foreign language would not live up to the clearly written verse IMO.
1CO 14:2* For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God; for no one understands him, but he utters mysteries in the Spirit.
I don't know how you can justify your personal take because this clearly does not meet any "real foreign language" guidelines IMO.
First, try re-reading 1 Corinthians 14 again as a whole. Get a feel for the whole argument that Paul is trying to make here. There is a pattern that you can see and a theme and point he is trying to make in
1 Corinthians 12-14.
Second, in 1 Corinthians 14:2, in the King James, the word appears as "spirit" and not as "Spirit." So this in reference to "spirit" of the person speaking and to the "spirits" of the audience of people who are listening. No man understands him because they are speaking in an unknown tongue which is a real foreign language. Somebody that speaks a foreign language and they are giving a spiritual message in another language (
like say Parthian), it will be as if they are speaking mysteries to them (
because they do not know Parthian). This does not mean they are speaking a heavenly language that is unknowable. It is merely an unknown tongue or language to that particular audience or people.
"to another
divers kinds of tongues;" (1 Corinthians 12:10).
Do all Pentecostals or Charismatics believe that a tongues speaker speaks all the versions of how they define tongues? No.
So 1 Corinthians 12:10 is saying that a believer in the early church could receive the gift of speaking diverse or different kinds of tongues (i.e. real foreign languages).
We see this same truth expressed in verse 28.
"diversities of tongues." (1 Corinthians 12:28).
"And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance." (Acts of the Apostles 2:4).
This was not a heavenly language but these were real foreign languages at Pentecost. There is no example of some kind of heavenly language or tongues mentioned in Scripture. The closest is 1 Corinthians 13, but Paul is speaking metaphorically of the tongues of angels because he talks about how a person can know all things (Which is clearly impossible because only God has that capability).
"In the law it is written,
With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord" (1 Corinthians 14:21).
This clearly defines the kind of tongues being spoken of in 1 Corinthians 14.
It says, "
with men of other tongues, and other lips." It is saying that these tongues and or lips are from men. They are the other tongues, and other lips of men. Real foreign languages. Men of other tongues. Foreign languages. Not a heavenly language.
You said:
Below is my breakdown and scripturally based opinion.
There are TWO SOURCES of tongues.
1. MY SPIRIT (1Co 14:14)
2. THE HOLY SPIRIT (1Co 12:11)
"my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful." (1 Corinthians 14:14).
"and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language." (Acts of the Apostles 2:6). They heard men of foreign tongues speak in their own language. Just because the source of their own ears was used does not mean that it was by their own power. They heard foreign speakers speak in their own language by the power of the Spirit. The same is true for 1 Corinthians 14:14. If they were to speak in tongues genuinely, they would pray in their spirit that particular unknown language or tongue. Only those who are able to interpret and understand the foreign language like at Pentecost would be able to truly understand. But the difference at Pentecost is that the Spirit was giving men the ability to have the gifts of both tongues and interpretations.
You said:
There are THREE PURPOSES of tongues.
1. Self edification. (1Cor 14:4)
This was a form of criticism, and not an endorsement.
Just read again the overall chapter and you will see that Paul's whole point here was in criticizing the Corinthians misuse of the gift. Seeing you like Greek studies: The word "edifieth" is based upon a Greek word (
oikodomeō) that is also used for the English word "build." So if one misuses the gift of tongues by having no interpreter present, they are building themselves up to be important (with useless chatter), and not building up the body of Christ (with thought and meaning that can truly edify).
You said:
2. Church edification. (1Cor 14:4, 5)
This is the only form of edification that Paul endorsed and had in view in the scope of
1 Corinthians 12-14.
You said:
3. World edification. (Acts 2:8)
Well, in regards to the devout Jews present: This was done to add them to the body of Christ. This was not done to lift up or build up the world, but it was to get them to be baptized, repent, and to receive the Holy Ghost. It was the birth of the church, and not the birth of the world. The world and God's kingdom are opposed to one another.
