It's not up for interpretation. Paul said that if you go back to the law, you have fallen from grace. We're under a new law and it is those statutes that we must keep.
Every form of communication is up to interpretation, which is why multiple people can read the same verse and come away with different understandings about what the author was intended to communicate. For example, I do not consider Paul to be an enemy of God, so I do not interpret that passage as Paul teaching us to rebel against God, however, the bottom line is that we must obey God rather than man, so if you think that is what Paul was doing, then you should be quicker to disregard everything that he said than to disregard anything that God has commanded.
Likewise, it would make no sense to think that we fall from grace by obeying God. In Psalms 119:29, David wanted God to be gracious to him by teaching him how to obey His law, so do you interpret that as David wanted God to be gracious to him by teaching him how to fall from grace? Do you interpret Romans 1:5 as saying that we have received grace in order to bring about our fall from grace? Or Titus 2:11-14 as describing our salvation as being trained by grace in how to fall from grace?
Paul spoke about multiple categories of law, such as God's law, works of the law, and the law of faith, so it is critically important to correctly interpret which law he was speaking about in order to avoid making the mistake of misinterpreting him as teaching us to rebel against God. For examples, in Romans 7:25, Paul contrasted God's law with the law of sin, and in Romans 3:27, he contrasted a law that was of works with a law of faith, so if you always interpret him as speaking about the same law, then you are guaranteed to misunderstand what he was saying.
Right. That law which was in effect. In Adam's time, there was a single law, don't eat the fruit of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. There have even been times before the law of Moses where there were no unclean animals.
All of God's righteousness laws are eternal (Psalms 119:160) and the way to act in accordance with God's righteousness has existed for as long as God's righteousness has been eternal. The Mosaic Law divides between good and evil. In Genesis 7:2, Noah was instructed in regard to what to do with clean and unclean animals without being told how to tell the difference, an in 8:20, he knew to offer a clean animal, so he must have been given instructions in that regard.
You really need to read your bible more.
3 When you were dead in your trespasses and in the uncircumcision of your sinful nature, God made you alive with Christ. He forgave us all our trespasses, 14 having canceled the debt ascribed to us in the decrees that stood against us. He took it away, nailing it to the cross! 15
It was the law and the transgressions which were nailed to the cross. He goes much further in the letter to the Hebrews explaining that the old covenant was done way with and replaced with a new covenant.
Again, that verse doesn't say anything about any laws being nailed to the cross. The decrees that stood against us were our violations of the law, not the laws themselves. Crosses were never used for the purpose of disposing of laws and they didn't have to legislate new ones to replace the old ones every time someone was crucified. In Titus 2:14, it doesn't say that Jesus gave himself to end any laws, but in order to redeem us from all lawlessness. In Hebrews 8:10, the New Covenant still involves following God's law.
This is totally against what the scripture says. They are not the same thing.
Then you need to address the serious implications of interpreting Jesus as being in disagreement with the Father. If you agree that Jesus set a sinless example of how to obey the Mosaic Law and did not hypocritically preach something other than what he practiced, then why would you think that the Law of Christ was something other than what he taught by word and by example? In Romans 7:25-8:2, Paul contrasted both God's Law and the Law of the Spirit with the law of sin and death, so he equated the Mosaic Law with the Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ. After all, the Mosaic Law was given by God and Jesus and the Spirit are God, so it is the Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ. Likewise, Paul said in a parallel statement in 1 Corinthians 9:21 that he was not outside God's law, but under the Law of Christ, so again he equated the Mosaic Law with the Law of Christ.
For those who were under that law it is exactly how they were justified. You're right, God isn't confused. He replaced the old law with a new one and he expects us to follow the new law of Christ which is NOT the law of Moses.
In Genesis 6:8-9, it says that Noah found grace in the eyes of God and that he was a righteous man, so he was justified by grace through faith in the same one and only way as everyone else. God had no need to provide an alternative and unattainable means of becoming justified through His law, so that was never the purpose for which it was given. In Romans 3:21-22, it does not says that the Law and the Prophets testify that the righteousness of God comes through our obedience, but rather they testify that it comes through faith in Christ for all who believe, so again this has always been the only way to become justified. God did not make any mistakes when He gave the law, so he had no need to send Jesus to replace His own laws.
If you really believe this, then when's the last time you sacrificed a goat for your sins?
That would not be in accordance with what the law instructs me to do due to there being no temple with a presiding Levitical priesthood, though Paul did continue to make sin offerings in Acts 18:18 in accordance with Numbers 6 and was on his way to pay for the sin offerings of others in Acts 21:20-24 in order to show that he continued to live in obedience to the Mosaic Law.