In regards to men > women, the Bible makes no provisions stating, 'as long as it's okay with the consenting female.' [You] need to back up this assumption/assertion. Can you do that?
I did that: Galatians 3:28. Please remember.
Thus far, quoting your singular verse does not do that,
Ah, you did remember my verse!
. I think it does do that. Your argument does not cut it, in my opinion. Here is why:
Okay, but if the pronouncement comes from God, that He does not permit a woman to teach, I guess God must change his rule anyways, because the woman does not agree with the pronouncement, followed by God's reason for the pronouncement.
... may I ask who "the woman" in your post is?
@Silmarien says, it's just Paul speaking personally, here, since it says "
I [Paul] can not permit that...".
Nevertheless, I have another way to even out the advantage for men in that, according to that verse, a woman should not teach: Let's assume a feminist woman would attend my church.. and let's further assume I am the church elder in charge of coming to an agreement with the feminist. I would 1. offer her a service equivalent to teaching. Say preaching. Or a prophetical ministry, provided she is a prophet.
In case she insists and must teach inasmuch as her male counterparts teach... then 2) I would propose to ban all teaching from my church. Together with women at church we would elaborate a list of good teaching sermons available online. Church on Sunday would consist of praise, preaching, and lunch afterwards, only. No teaching.
You are almost there, but not quite. Jesus does not abolish slavery, period. Which means He is either okay with it in general, or maybe likes it in general; as He issues little specifics.
He addressed slavery in the context of a specific situation Israel was in. "
and whoever would be first among you must be your slave," Matthew 20:27. This, for example, was to explain something. You could add "your slave as you know it from your environment + in the circumstances you live in." He wanted to be understood. They understood "slave", so he used that word. Nothing more nothing less.
Jesus didn't abolish it. However, slavery is a
political issue. In contrast, He was there to save the lost sheep of Israel. Personally.
This was his mission.
And if He is only okay with slavery because it was already in practice before He provided His say-so, then why does He place Commandments against all the other topics, in which were already in existence (like theft, trespassing, etc)?
Good question.
Let me explain it to you from my standpoint. If you don't steal... nothing happens. If you don't trespass... nothing happens.
If you don't enslave prisoners of war, you have to pay for the prison to be built. The clothing of the war prisoners. The heating. The water. The food. The staff of the prison...
Israel
didn't have all that shortly after they escaped the desert.
So I stay with my opinion: God was ok with it
under the specific circumstances given.
Jesus has a good verse for people in trouble:
encourage the fainthearted, help the weak, 1 Thessalonians 5:14. Maybe this applied to the slaves. But even for slaves: salvation is priority No. 1. Then the saved person should care for the church first and think about the rest last. And again: within the kingdom of God - the most important thing for all Christians - there are no slaves.
Thomas