Why discuss Calvinism vs Arminianism in Evangelism? Starts with Definitions

marineimaging

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To reiterate, I can say this without a doubt. I have encountered the Holy Spirit in my life, working, real, distinguishable, as depicted in the Holy Bible, King James Version. No if's, no maybe's. What I read and hear most often is people arguing the science of the physical world's view which can be manipulated, twisted, and deceived. So, it is impossible for me to show you what I know first hand by virtue of what has happened to me. What I can say with absolute certainty is that the promises in the Holy Bible, King James Version are yours to have through faith. Not works. Not deeds. Not money. Not questioning. By faith your eyes will be opened and that faith means to open your heart to our Creator who is in that Bible and is the Father, Son, And Holy Spirit. Then to live it out for it is as real as the earth under our feet and the air that we breathe.
 
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Rawtheran

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To reiterate, I can say this without a doubt. I have encountered the Holy Spirit in my life, working, real, distinguishable, as depicted in the Holy Bible, King James Version. No if's, no maybe's. What I read and hear most often is people arguing the science of the physical world's view which can be manipulated, twisted, and deceived. So, it is impossible for me to show you what I know first hand by virtue of what has happened to me. What I can say with absolute certainty is that the promises in the Holy Bible, King James Version are yours to have through faith. Not works. Not deeds. Not money. Not questioning. By faith your eyes will be opened and that faith means to open your heart to our Creator who is in that Bible and is the Father, Son, And Holy Spirit. Then to live it out for it is as real as the earth under our feet and the air that we breathe.
I don't think that the KJV is the great and mystical translation that some people make it out to be but I do agree with pretty much everything else you said.
 
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BBAS 64

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Calvin knew that from the foundation of the world God chose those in His foreknowledge who would be saved.

He left the whole word of God and disregarded that God has called all men to repentance.

That leaves it to man not God who will be saved and who will not.

Good Day, Charlie

He (Calvin) disregarded... Really. In all of Calvin's writing where did you get this from?

I really need a source, for such a seemingly baseless assertion.

Just a quick history Calvin set up schools in Geneva in order to train men to go to France to reach the lost, by calling them to repent.

I await your source from Calvin for such a claim.

Here is a whole chapter from Him on Repentance;

Chapter 3, Institutes of the Christian Religion Book 3, John Calvin, Christian Classics books at BibleStudyTools.com

In Him

Bill
 
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Josheb

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Any man means any man. You are trying to add what isn't there.
Yes, and any man in the church of Laodicea means any man in the church of Laodicea. It does not mean any man outside the church of Laodicea. Any man who I know means any man who I know and it does not mean any man I do not know.

It is you who is adding what is not there. The text plainly states those words were spoken to the church at Laodiciea. The text plainly states it is about those Christ knew. I am standing firmly on what the text actually factually states.

You are not.


I posted the larger text for any and all to see. The entire argument I've received is based on what you think, holding yourself out as the arbiter of a single verse willfully ignoring all that the surrounding text states. That's what was posted. The long-established and well-established principles of relevant exegesis have been posted and they too are willfully ignored in favor of holding personal interpretation out over both the actual statements of scripture and the precepts of sound exegesis.
 
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renniks

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Yes, and any man in the church of Laodicea means any man in the church of Laodicea. It does not mean any man outside the church of Laodicea. Any man who I know means any man who I know and it does not mean any man I do not know.

It is you who is adding what is not there. The text plainly states those words were spoken to the church at Laodiciea. The text plainly states it is about those Christ knew. I am standing firmly on what the text actually factually states.

You are not.


I posted the larger text for any and all to see. The entire argument I've received is based on what you think, holding yourself out as the arbiter of a single verse willfully ignoring all that the surrounding text states. That's what was posted. The long-established and well-established principles of relevant exegesis have been posted and they too are willfully ignored in favor of holding personal interpretation out over both the actual statements of scripture and the precepts of sound exegesis.
You don't need any interpretation, just logic.
It's the same as people that try to take John 3:16,s ( whosoever) mean only certain people. You're limiting the verse to fit your theology.
 
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Josheb

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You don't need any interpretation, just logic.
False dichotomy. False dichotomies are not logical. Your own posts contradict you, renniks.
It's the same as people that try to take John 3:16,s ( whosoever) mean only certain people. You're limiting the verse to fit your theology.
Don't change the subject. This is about the claim Rev. 3:22 and not Jn. 3:16 is about anyone and not those stipulated by the text. Because you cannot prove your position by an examination of the Rev. 3 text you are resorting to other cases you imagine identical.

Fail.
 
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renniks

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Don't change the subject. This is about the claim Rev. 3:22 and not Jn. 3:16 is about anyone and not those stipulated by the text. Because you cannot prove your position by an examination of the Rev. 3 text you are resorting to other cases you imagine identical.
Okay by your logic, if the pastor quotes John 3:16 next week, the "whosoever"only applies to people in the room, and we should not try to invite any new people.
By your logic if I hear a good sermon I should not share with anyone outside the church, because obviously it doesn't apply to them.
 
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redleghunter

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"And if I am lifted up, I will draw all people to myself."

And he was lifted up and he draws everyone. Some chose to believe.
He was in the company of Greeks as Andrew brought Jesus Greeks interested in meeting Jesus. Within the context this is to show Jesus when lifted up and raised will be savior for all peoples and not just the Jews.

John 12: NASB

20Now there were some Greeks among those who were going up to worship at the feast; 21these then came to Philip, who was from Bethsaida of Galilee, and began to ask him, saying, “Sir, we wish to see Jesus.” 22Philip came and told Andrew; Andrew and Philip came and told Jesus. 23And Jesus answered them, saying, “The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified. 24“Truly, truly, I say to you, unless a grain of wheat falls into the earth and dies, it remains alone; but if it dies, it bears much fruit. 25“He who loves his life loses it, and he who hates his life in this world will keep it to life eternal. 26“If anyone serves Me, he must follow Me; and where I am, there My servant will be also; if anyone serves Me, the Father will honor him.


27“Now My soul has become troubled; and what shall I say, ‘Father, save Me from this hour’? But for this purpose I came to this hour. 28“Father, glorify Your name.” Then a voice came out of heaven: “I have both glorified it, and will glorify it again.” 29So the crowd of people who stood by and heard it were saying that it had thundered; others were saying, “An angel has spoken to Him.” 30Jesus answered and said, “This voice has not come for My sake, but for your sakes. 31“Now judgment is upon this world; now the ruler of this world will be cast out. 32“And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself.”
 
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BobRyan

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Okay by your logic, if the pastor quotes John 3:16 next week, the "whosoever"only applies to people in the room, and we should not try to invite any new people.
By your logic if I hear a good sermon I should not share with anyone outside the church, because obviously it doesn't apply to them.

practice of redefining terms so as to "downsize them" creates a result that is not very useful. It turns the Bible into hyperbole and exaggeration claiming that it uses terms like "Whole world" 1 John 2:2 and "all mankind" John 12:32 when what it really means is "the few of Matthew 7".
 
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BobRyan

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You may think whatever you like but everything has context. The truth is you don't actually think that. If a black person in 1955 drank from a water fountain after I said, "Anyone is free to drink from that white-only water fountain," they know that's not true. They know that "anyone" has context and there are specific people to whom the "anyone" applies others to whom it does not apply.

having a certain bias or filter when you come to the text will make you want to downsize whatever you read into something that fits preference/bias etc. That has always been the case. The key is "not to do that" because its a form of downsizing for the gospel scope that would need an explicit statement not merely inference to fit a bias.
 
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BBAS 64

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practice of redefining terms so as to "downsize them" creates a result that is not very useful. It turns the Bible into hyperbole and exaggeration claiming that it uses terms like "Whole world" 1 John 2:2 and "all mankind" John 12:32 when what it really means is "the few of Matthew 7".


Good Day, Bob

The NT Greeek lexicon attribute I think 12 different meanings of usage of the Greek term used by John in His writings. It is the context that drives the meaning in a particular usage of the term.

Here is a abbreviated list: Thayer

1) an apt and harmonious arrangement or constitution, order, government
2) ornament, decoration, adornment, i.e. the arrangement of the stars, ‘the heavenly hosts’, as the ornament of the heavens. 1Pe_3:3
3) the world, the universe
4) the circle of the earth, the earth
5) the inhabitants of the earth, men, the human family
6) the ungodly multitude; the whole mass of men alienated from God, and therefore hostile to the cause of Christ
7) world affairs, the aggregate of things earthly
7a) the whole circle of earthly goods, endowments riches, advantages, pleasures, etc, which although hollow and frail and fleeting, stir desire, seduce from God and are obstacles to the cause of Christ
8) any aggregate or general collection of particulars of any sort
8a) the Gentiles as contrasted to the Jews (Rom_11:12 etc)
8b) of believers only, Joh_1:29; Joh_3:16; Joh_3:17; Joh_6:33; Joh_12:47 1Co_4:9; 2Co_5:19
Part of Speech: noun masculine


I do not have Kittles electronicly but you can certainly have a look there as well.
In Him,

Bill
 
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Josheb

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Okay by your logic, if the pastor quotes John 3:16 next week, the "whosoever"only applies to people in the room, and we should not try to invite any new people. By your logic if I hear a good sermon I should not share with anyone outside the church, because obviously it doesn't apply to them.
I just got done telling you that you don't get to change the subject to another verse and I will not collaborate with such subterfuge.

Not all mentions of the word "anyone" are identical.

You are arguing a construction fallacy.

Because one mention of "anyone" means everyone all mentions of "anyone" mean everyone. It is fallacious and untrue. The argument is invalid and the conclusion is unsound.

The "whosoever" of John 3 may well be applicable to all people but that is not the anyone" of Revelation 3. You are assuming the commonality and not proving it. Big difference.


Revelation 3 states what it states and what it states is those words were spoken to the church in Laodicea and those known by Christ. They were not spoken to those in the church of Sardis or Ephesus or any of the other seven churches and they were not spoken to those outside of the church nor those not known by Christ and anyone in the 21st century seeking to apply what was stated back to modern thought, doctrine, and practice needs to correctly understand the text. This op and you do not do that. You have assumed somethng not stated in the text and ignored what is stated in the text.
 
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Josheb

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having a certain bias or filter when you come to the text will make you want to downsize whatever you read into something that fits preference/bias etc. That has always been the case. The key is "not to do that" because its a form of downsizing for the gospel scope that would need an explicit statement not merely inference to fit a bias.
I completely agree. The same problem works in reverse: having a certain bias when you come to the text will make you oversize whatever you read.

That is what happened in this op.

You should change that.

You change that based on what the text of Revelation 3 actually states and not what certain biases may downsize or oversize the text to say.

What the text actually factually undeniably irrefutably states is those words were spoken to the angel and believers in Laodicea and thos in the church in Laodicea who were knonw by Christ. That's what the text actually states! It does NOT in any way shpe or form remotely imply anywhere in the text those words are spoken to unregenerate non-believers.

And you and renniks can argue with me all you like about failed logic and "certain biases" but the text states what the text states and both of you are ignoring what is actually stated. And you as the author of this op should understand what I am saying to you, the author of this op: there may well be passages in the Bible that do in fact speak about "the arminian model is an open system," of a sinner's volition but Revelation 3:22 is not one of them and you are screwing up your own op when you post what is exegetically verifiable. And if your response is to appeal to supposed "certain biases" while you ignore your own then you're screwing up your own op even more.

I don't know where you got the idea Rev. 3:22 is about Arminian volitional openness but I don't care, because it is wrong. Any plain objective, unbiased reading of the text sees what it states, and what it actually factually states is the words were spoken to those in the church known by Christ. It is not a verse applicable to unregenerate non-believers.


And, Bob, there isn't a single verse in the entire Bible that explicitly states a sinner's volition is causally related to salvation. That position has always been a function of inference. That inference is almost always eisegetic (I have never read an Arminian, Wesleyan, or Traditionalist provide an explicit report from scripture and what they do present is invariably interpretive). In contrast, the monergists can point to explicit statements in scripture showing God is causal. We have explicit statements. Inferences made from those explicit statements are then exegetical, not eisegetic. Both soteriologies use inference. Monergists are exegetically inferential and the synergists are eisegetically inferential.

The premise of prevenient grace is one such example of eisegetic inference.
The premise prevenient grace frees up the sinner's will is another example.
The premise the sinner's will has power is another such example.
The premise God made His plan of salvation dependent on an unregenerate sinner's will is another.
The premise God limit's Himself soteriologically is another example.
The premise God cannot or does not coerce salvation is another.​

Not rying to be hurtful. Those are simply the facts of Arminian soteriology as they assert them relevant to what scripture explicitly states. There are no verses in the entire Bible stating any of these beliefs. The synergist will justify these positions by first interpreting a scripture and then using that interpretation to support the position.

Neither mon nor syn can escape the practice of interpretation but is the interpretation exegetical or eisegetical?

This op eisegeted Rev. 3:22. It did not exegete that verse.

I provided an exegesis and you not provided an alternative, especially not an exegesis of Rev. 3:22 that addresses the facts the words were spoken to those in the church in Laodicea known by Christ.


I'm simply pointing that out and doing so the error will be corrected, the op amended accordingly, and we can discuss the op sharing common ground.... with God's word. It does no one here any good to have consensus between us if that consensus is not shared with God's word.
 
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Al Touthentop

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“The Father is the One who sent me. No one can come to me unless the Father draws [drags] him to me, and I will raise that person up on the last day.” John 6:44 (NCV)

so all men = all who the Father drags to Jesus.

Isn't it funny how Calvinists love to redefine words for their own convenience.
 
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Charlie24

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Good Day, Charlie

He (Calvin) disregarded... Really. In all of Calvin's writing where did you get this from?

I really need a source, for such a seemingly baseless assertion.

Just a quick history Calvin set up schools in Geneva in order to train men to go to France to reach the lost, by calling them to repent.

I await your source from Calvin for such a claim.

Here is a whole chapter from Him on Repentance;

Chapter 3, Institutes of the Christian Religion Book 3, John Calvin, Christian Classics books at BibleStudyTools.com

In Him

Bill

Hello Bill!

Let me first say that there are many different interpretations within the Calvinists ranks, I have no idea to which interpretation I am dealing with in you. So I will just state the problem I have directly to Calvin.

There are many of us who do not agree with Calvin's definition of predestination.

Predestination is definitely a Bible teaching, this teaching deals with God's plan.

Predestination does not pertain to individual conformity of free wills to that plan. God has called all men and all are free to accept or reject.

All who accept the call, He has foreknown and predestinated to be conformed to the image of His Son that His Son might be the first born among many brethren.

In other words, it is never the person that is predestined but rather the plan for man.

Calvin's view of predestination, which I believe is an awful error, has several contradictions. For example, he said, "Man therefore falls, God's providence so ordaining, but he falls by his own fault." (The Institute of Christian Religion Vo. 2).

That statement is a contradiction in terms. How could he fall by his own fault if God has so ordained it?

Calvin tried to make the argument that God ordained the fall only to the extent that through foreknowledge God knew it would happen.

Once again, the contradiction arises, If God ordains the fall, then man has no choice in the matter.

I can write a book on things of this nature where Calvin's theory just doesn't measure up. I say theory because that's what it is!
 
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Maniel

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The way I see it, and please correct me if wrong, it's only vague guesses of realities I haven't come into terms with.

If God is all knowing, eternal, his foreknowledge, living past-present-future, he knew who would fall and who would receive. Though men act in free will, God can be said to have determined who is elect and saved as he foresaw it in the future. As He hardens the heart of Pharoah for not reciving the free gift of salvation He is not accountable. He is Just, He can do what ever is His will as He know the outcome from all events, he know the will and desire of all men, the number of hairs on the top of our head.

I understand calvanism as a sort of reality and statement that surely God wants every man saved, but he foresaw those who would believe in his Son Jesus Christ as their Lord and Savior. To repent and trust in Him, they are the people that was sort of predestined to become the elect. Something that doesn't seem fair or just at first glance, unless we get all the nuances into the theology of the qualities and realities of God.
 
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BBAS 64

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Hello Bill!

Let me first say that there are many different interpretations within the Calvinists ranks, I have no idea to which interpretation I am dealing with in you. So I will just state the problem I have directly to Calvin.

There are many of us who do not agree with Calvin's definition of predestination.

Predestination is definitely a Bible teaching, this teaching deals with God's plan.

Predestination does not pertain to individual conformity of free wills to that plan. God has called all men and all are free to accept or reject.

All who accept the call, He has foreknown and predestinated to be conformed to the image of His Son that His Son might be the first born among many brethren.

In other words, it is never the person that is predestined but rather the plan for man.

Calvin's view of predestination, which I believe is an awful error, has several contradictions. For example, he said, "Man therefore falls, God's providence so ordaining, but he falls by his own fault." (The Institute of Christian Religion Vo. 2).

That statement is a contradiction in terms. How could he fall by his own fault if God has so ordained it?

Calvin tried to make the argument that God ordained the fall only to the extent that through foreknowledge God knew it would happen.

Once again, the contradiction arises, If God ordains the fall, then man has no choice in the matter.

I can write a book on things of this nature where Calvin's theory just doesn't measure up. I say theory because that's what it is!


Good Day, Charlie

Not to be a stick in the mud... but you have changed the subject. Not sure why you did that, anyhow do you have a basis for your assertion on Calvin's view of repentance?

That is all I was asking for...Really.

In Him,

Bill
 
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Al Touthentop

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Revelation 3 states what it states and what it states is those words were spoken to the church in Laodicea and those known by Christ. They were not spoken to those in the church of Sardis or Ephesus or any of the other seven churches and they were not spoken to those outside of the church nor those not known by Christ and anyone in the 21st century seeking to apply what was stated back to modern thought, doctrine, and practice needs to correctly understand the text. This op and you do not do that. You have assumed somethng not stated in the text and ignored what is stated in the text.

They were spoken to them most assuredly. And I do love that you realize that there are no univocals in language - words and phrases which mean the same thing every time they are encountered.

But that phrase in Revelation means exactly what it looks like. He's not limiting context just to the church there. He's reminding them that anyone can come to him. Because that's what he always preached. And though it be that the father must draw a man, Jesus explained that through his crucifixion he would draw all men. At no time did he teach that men were elected before their obedience. We have too many passages in scripture which tell us the benefits of salvation come after obedience and that we are responsible. Were it God who was causing our obedience, there would be no justification for punishment.

The phrase "any man" means any man. All have the opportunity. As Paul wrote in Romans,, "for there is no partiality with God." Not even when there was a division between Gentile and Jew did he show partiality as we can read again in Acts 10.
 
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renniks

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states what it states and what it states is those words were spoken to the church in Laodicea and those known by Christ. They were not spoken to those in the church of Sardis or Ephesus or any of the other seven churches and they were not spoken to those outside of the church nor those not known by Christ and anyone in the 21st century seeking to apply what was stated back to modern thought, doctrine, and practice needs to correctly understand the text. This op and you do not do that. You have assumed somethng not stated in the text and ignored what is stated in the text
Applying that thought, we can't learn anything from Paul's letters that applies to our lives today, because they weren't written to us. So let's just take them out of the Bible.
 
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Al Touthentop

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The way I see it, and please correct me if wrong, it's only vague guesses of realities I haven't come into terms with.

If God is all knowing, eternal, his foreknowledge, living past-present-future, he knew who would fall and who would receive. Though men act in free will, God can be said to have determined who is elect and saved as he foresaw it in the future.

Sure. But he determined the means by which he would elect them, the gospel, he didn't chose which ones beforehand who he would cause to obey.

As He hardens the heart of Pharoah for not reciving the free gift of salvation He is not accountable. He is Just, He can do what ever is His will as He know the outcome from all events, he know the will and desire of all men, the number of hairs on the top of our head.

And his hardening was in offending with his words, not by predestined causing of Pharaoh to disobey those words. Had Pharaoh succumbed to God's words in the beginning, God's plans would still have been accomplished and his glory would still be just as glorious.
I understand calvanism as a sort of reality and statement that surely God wants every man saved, but he foresaw those who would believe in his Son Jesus Christ as their Lord and Savior. To repent and trust in Him, they are the people that was sort of predestined to become the elect. Something that doesn't seem fair or just at first glance, unless we get all the nuances into the theology of the qualities and realities of God.

If Calvinism is true, then the statement that God wants every man saved is absolutely false. Because if he truly coerces the saved into obedience, he could do that for every man. Calvinism is blasphemy towards God. It says that he, in spite of every word he utters to the contrary through his prophets, is actually partial and unjust. And it says that our objection cannot be uttered because he gets to do whatever he wants, even things that are plainly mean and unjust.

Now God repeatedly tells us that he never acts like this. So who are we to believe? God or the people blaspheming him? I chose God. Ezekiel 18
 
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