THE TRUE "REPLACEMENT THEOLOGY/SUPERSESSIONISM" OF THE BIBLE

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Correct. I assumed that, because it doesn't appear that you believe the antichrist that the 1st century audience had heard is coming to be the same as the antichrist that was present in the 1st century.

1 John 2:18 Children, it is the last hour; and just as you have heard that the antichrist is coming, so now many antichrists have appeared. This is how we know it is the last hour.

Thus, by that logic you wouldn't believe that the coca cola orange you heard is coming, to be the same coca cola orange that is now present in stores everywhere.

However, if you do believe the antichrist that the 1st century audience had heard is coming, was in fact present in the 1st century, then we are in agreement.


As I would know orange coca cola if I saw it, so everyone will know the Anti-Christ when he arrives. No such person performing the things that he will do ever arrived on the scene in the first century. Granted other antichrists have come into the world and were already present in the first century, but they have been unable to do all that the coming Anti-Christ will do. The same spirit at work in the antichrists present is also preparing the way for the Anti-Christ foretold.
 
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parousia70

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There is no NT scripture that interprets Zechariah 14 to be symbolic either

Jesus said (and His interpretation ought to be authoritative for us) in proclaiming the fulfillment of Zechariah 14:8 in His day:

He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.
John 7:38
 
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Jesus said (and His interpretation ought to be authoritative for us) in proclaiming the fulfillment of Zechariah 14:8 in His day:

He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water.
John 7:38


If Jesus was declaring the fulfillment of Zechariah 14:8, then what is Jerusalem supposed to symbolize and what are the "former and hinder seas" into which this water is supposed to flow supposed to represent?
 
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parousia70

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If Jesus was declaring the fulfillment of Zechariah 14:8, then what is Jerusalem supposed to symbolize and what are the "former and hinder seas" into which this water is supposed to flow supposed to represent?

You go First.. If Jesus was not declaring the fulfillment of Zechariah 14:8, what OT Scripture heralding the arrival of Living waters to the earth was he declaring fulfilled "as the scripture hath said"?
 
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You go First.. If Jesus was not declaring the fulfillment of Zechariah 14:8, what OT Scripture heralding the arrival of Living waters to the earth was he declaring fulfilled "as the scripture hath said"?


Apparently, if you knew the answer to my question, you would have answered it.
 
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parousia70

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Apparently, if you knew the answer to my question, you would have answered it.
Likewise.
Show me the Living waters scripture Jesus was quoting and claiming to have fulfilled right there on the spot.
 
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Likewise.
Show me the Living waters scripture Jesus was quoting and claiming to have fulfilled right there on the spot.


It was you who made the claim that Jesus was quoting from Zechariah 14:8 and declaring its fulfillment, not me.
 
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claninja

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And we demonstrate that fulfillment by how we live our lives. And if the Old Covenant was made obsolete at the cross, it also vanished upon His resurrection by which the New Covenant is established and validated.

Incorrect, scripture is clear that it was to "soon disappear". Not that it already had, as you are suggesting.

Hebrews 8:13 By speaking of a new covenant, He has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear.

Did the Jerusalem counsel lighten the burden of the laws of Moses for the Jewish believers or Gentiles?

At what point in history did Jewish believers stop going up to Jerusalem to worship in the temple in fulfillment of Jesus' words in John 4:21, at the cross or at the temple's destruction?


There is no NT scripture that interprets Zechariah 14 to be symbolic either and therefore, the only understanding we are left of the chapter is in the literal context in which it is portrayed. And the insight I gave was based only on what is written in the chapter. Your allegorical or symbolic interpretation would only be plausible if the chapter was presented in a symbolic context or if it was directly addressed by any NT scriptures interpreting it as symbolic.

I would argue The NT does address parts of Zechariah 14. If Jesus wasn't referring to zechariah 14, what OT scripture is He referring to?

John 7:38-39 Whoever believes in me, as the Scripture has said, ‘Out of his heart will flow rivers of living water.’” Now this he said about the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were to receive, for as yet the Spirit had not been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.

zechariah 14:8 On that day living waters shall flow out from Jerusalem, half of them to the eastern sead and half of them to the western sea. It shall continue in summer as in winter.

Now on to the end of Zechariah 14. Interpreting the end of zechariah 14 as a literal future reality where peoples of the earth will be required to travel to Jerusalem to celebrate the feast of tabernacles directly contradicts the words of Jesus in John 4:21 and Paul in colossians 2:16-17.



Zechariah 14:16-17 Then all the survivors from the nations that came against Jerusalem will go up year after year to worship the King, the LORD of Hosts, and to celebrate the Feast of Tabernacles.d And should any of the families of the earth not go up to Jerusalem to worship the King, the LORD of Hosts, the rain will not fall on them

John 4:21 “Believe Me, woman,” Jesus replied, “a time is coming when you will worship the Father neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem.

Colossians 2:16-17 Therefore let no one judge you by what you eat or drink, or with regard to a feast, a New Moon, or a Sabbath. These are a shadow of the things to come, but the body that casts it belongs to Christ

Thus, unless you can rectify the contradictions of your literal interpretation of the end of zechariah 14, the appropriate way to interpret it, is as a vision/parable/dream/riddle. God specifically stated he would speak to the prophets of Israel, in numbers 12:6-8, in that way.

It will only come to earth when He comes to the earth again. For now, its expansion comes by way of soul winning.

As scripture states, The kingdom would come in the generation of Jesus' 1st century audience.

Mark 9:1 Then Jesus said to them, “Truly I tell you, there are some standing here who will not taste death until they see the kingdom of God arrive with power.”

And yet scripture says that death will not be required of those who witness the return of the Lord. (1 Cor. 15:51, 1 Thess. 4:13-18) But for the present time, all die but those who die in Christ will not stay dead.

those who believe in Christ will never die. Do you believe this?

John 11:26 And everyone who lives and believes in Me will never die. Do you believe this?”


Why does scripture mention the same having their part in the lake of fire?

Because that is where they will end up. I already answered that. Now please answer my question.

Why does scripture mention the wicked outside of the New Jerusalem, but not outside the New Heavens and earth?

Before sin and death entered the world, animals and man still had to eat to sustain themselves, but did that make the earth any less perfect then?

Eating is not the same as needing healing. If everything is perfect, why does there need to be healing?

That woman is a specific target of Satan and the events surrounding her exodus into the wilderness is in no way reflected by any past events. It is a time to come. When he fails to destroy her, he sets his sights on the rest of her offspring. Satan's complete expulsion from Heaven has not yet happened.

The woman gave birth to the messiah, who was caught up to heaven. This has in no way happened yet? I disagree

Jesus said satan was to be cast out at his death and ascension, do you disagree?

John 12:31-33 Now judgment is upon this world; now the prince of this world will be cast out. And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself.” He said this to indicate the kind of death He was going to die.

The Gospel of John says that a sign which Pilate wrote and posted over the head of Christ when He was crucified was written in three languages: Hebrew, Greek, and Latin. No mention of Aramaic which means it was not as prevalent of a language as the academics would have us believe and it most certainly did not supplant the Hebrew language by any means.

And what does this have to do with the LXX of Daniel 11:31 fitting nicely with the hebrew of Daniel 8?


Did any of them set up an image in the Temple and demand that everyone worship it? Did any of them demand that the people worship them as God?

There is no recorded history of zealots setting up an image in the temple. There is recorded history of the romans doing that when they took the temple in 70ad. However, Where does scripture define the AOD as an image?

There is no recorded history of the zealots demanding people to worship them as God. They only demanded that the people trapped inside Jerusalem followed their cause in rebellion, otherwise they would be slaughtered. But I don't see where 2 thessalonians 2 mentions the man of sin "demanding worship". I only read that he exalts HIMSELF above all objects of worship.

History is what tells us whether or not prophecy has come to pass. Those of the earthly Jerusalem will also become a part of the Heavenly Jerusalem that is to come if they place their trust in Christ. The throne of Christ may be established in Heaven, but it is only when He comes to earth that we will see Him on the throne of David.


And the temple fell in 70ad in fulfillment of the olivet discourse (mark 13, matthew 24, and luke 21). History records this.

Those of the earthly Jerusalem will never inherit with those of the heavenly Jerusalem (galatians 4:24-31).

According to the book of Acts, God fulfilled his promise to David at the resurrection of Christ.

Acts 2:30-31 But he was a prophet and knew that God had promised him on oath that He would place one of his descendants on his throne. Foreseeing this, David spoke about the resurrection of the Christ,

What Bible are you reading? Mine clearly depicts Christ literally returning to the earth and reigning for a thousand years.

I use the LXX, the YLT, the KJV, and NIV. Maybe you could provide the specific verse you are talking about. I don't see any verses that specifically mention Jesus coming to earth to reign for 1,000 years.


Show us in the NT where Ezekiel's vision is specifically addressed and interpreted as symbolic.

Paul quotes from Ezekiel and states we are the temple of God, as God has said.

2 corinthians 6:16 What agreement can exist between the temple of God and idols? For we are the temple of the living God. As God has said: “I will live with them and walk among them, and I will be their God, and they will be My people.”

Ezekiel 37:26-27 And I will make a covenant of peace with them; it will be an everlasting covenant. I will establish them and multiply them, and I will set My sanctuary among them forever. My dwelling place will be with them; I will be their God, and they will be My people.

Now that I have shown a NT verse that supports my position, Please show in the NT where Ezekiel's vision is specifically addressed and interpreted as literal, in order to support your position.

Correct. If there is nothing in the text that suggests symbolism, and if other scriptures also addressing the prophecy in question do not interpret it as symbolic, then the only conclusion is to accept it as literal. Persisting in imposing an interpretation of allegory or symbolism upon text that is not written in that format leads only to theories and conjecture which can then lead to false doctrines and confusion.

Numbers 12:6-8 sets the context. God would speak to the prophets of Israel in vision/dreams/riddles, and NOT straight forward like he spoke to Moses.

Numbers 12:6-8 He said, “Hear now My words: If there is a prophet among you, I, the LORD, will reveal Myself to him in a vision; I will speak to him in a dream. But this is not so with My servant Moses; he is faithful in all My house. I speak with him face to face, clearly and not in riddles;
he sees the form of the LORD.

This is confirmed by the prophet hosea

Hosea 12:10 I spoke through the prophets and multiplied their visions;I gave parables through the prophets.

Both literal and symbolic interpretation can lead to theories and conjectures if its not based on the teachings of Jesus and the epistles. Jesus and the epistles, through the Spirit, teach us how to interpret the OT and the book of Revelation.
 
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claninja

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As I would know orange coca cola if I saw it, so everyone will know the Anti-Christ when he arrives. No such person performing the things that he will do ever arrived on the scene in the first century. Granted other antichrists have come into the world and were already present in the first century, but they have been unable to do all that the coming Anti-Christ will do. The same spirit at work in the antichrists present is also preparing the way for the Anti-Christ foretold.

So your claim of "not true" is proven false.

A. as you have heard the antichrist is coming
as you have heard coca cola orange is coming

B. so now many antichrists have come
so now coca cola orange is in many stores.

You state the coca cola orange in statement A is the same as the one in statement B. However, you state the antichrist in statement A is not the same as the antichrists in statement B.

You argument is not consistent. If you stated that the coca cola orange in statement A is different that statement B, then your logic would be consistent and would match your interpretation of the passage in 1 John 2.

But it's clear that if you stated the coca cola orange from statement A is different then statement B, you would be throwing logic out the window. Thus, we can see that your interpretation of 1 John 2:18 is illogical.
 
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Incorrect, scripture is clear that it was to "soon disappear". Not that it already had, as you are suggesting.

Hebrews 8:13 By speaking of a new covenant, He has made the first one obsolete; and what is obsolete and aging will soon disappear.

Did the Jerusalem counsel lighten the burden of the laws of Moses for the Jewish believers or Gentiles?

At what point in history did Jewish believers stop going up to Jerusalem to worship in the temple in fulfillment of Jesus' words in John 4:21, at the cross or at the temple's destruction?


Then you have got a serious problem in that if the Old Covenant had not vanished away when Christ rose from the dead, the New Covenant could not have come into effect until the destruction of the Temple, only the Temple was destroyed due to judgment for rejecting Christ, not because it was made obsolete as a place of worship. The only other possibility is that the cited passage may also be in reference to this present world which is also destined to pass away along with the sin, death, decay, and misery that is in it.

But if the Old Covenant had not vanished away upon Christ's death resurrection, then that means every follower of Christ was still in their sins and died in their sins, remaining separated from God until the destruction of the Temple in Jerusalem, meaning their faith in the efficacy of Christ's sacrifice on the cross for their sins would have been rendered worthless with the Temple still standing. You are essence saying that the presence of the Jewish Temple was more powerful than the blood of Christ that was shed to take away sins.

And at what point did believers stop worshipping at Jerusalem altogether, regardless of whether or not a Temple was present? Never. There have always been believers worshipping Christ wherever they are at from day one. When Jesus said that a time was coming when no one would go to a certain place to worship, it had nothing to do with the Temple. That is your addition to His Words.

You also forget the Gentiles later became applicable to everyone regardless of whether they were Jew or Gentile (Rom. 14, Col. 2:16) because all followers of Christ live under the law of grace by faith alone.


I would argue The NT does address parts of Zechariah 14. If Jesus wasn't referring to zechariah 14, what OT scripture is He referring to?

John 7:38-39 Whoever believes in me, as the Scripture has said, ‘Out of his heart will flow rivers of living water.’” Now this he said about the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were to receive, for as yet the Spirit had not been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.

zechariah 14:8 On that day living waters shall flow out from Jerusalem, half of them to the eastern sead and half of them to the western sea. It shall continue in summer as in winter.

Now on to the end of Zechariah 14. Interpreting the end of zechariah 14 as a literal future reality where peoples of the earth will be required to travel to Jerusalem to celebrate the feast of tabernacles directly contradicts the words of Jesus in John 4:21 and Paul in colossians 2:16-17.



Zechariah 14:16-17 Then all the survivors from the nations that came against Jerusalem will go up year after year to worship the King, the LORD of Hosts, and to celebrate the Feast of Tabernacles.d And should any of the families of the earth not go up to Jerusalem to worship the King, the LORD of Hosts, the rain will not fall on them


If Zechariah chapter 14 is to be rendered symbolic, what would have to be established are:


1. What Jerusalem out of whom the living water flows represents.

2. What the geographic locations of where the waters flow to represent.

3. Who the nations are that come against Jerusalem and who the survivors of those nations are supposed to be.

4. What the Feast of Tabernacles is supposed to represent.

5. What the rain is that will be withheld from the nations that refuse to present themselves before the Lord in Jerusalem each year during the feast of Tabernacles.


As scripture states, The kingdom would come in the generation of Jesus' 1st century audience.

Mark 9:1 Then Jesus said to them, “Truly I tell you, there are some standing here who will not taste death until they see the kingdom of God arrive with power.”


History says otherwise. Jesus did not return in the first century which can only mean that there is a number of people from that generation who are still alive and hidden away until His return.


those who believe in Christ will never die. Do you believe this?

John 11:26 And everyone who lives and believes in Me will never die. Do you believe this?”


I believe it, even though we still die. That is because those of us who do died will not stay dead and not everyone will die before the return of the Lord.


Because that is where they will end up. I already answered that. Now please answer my question.

Why does scripture mention the wicked outside of the New Jerusalem, but not outside the New Heavens and earth?


How can they be in two places at once?


Eating is not the same as needing healing. If everything is perfect, why does there need to be healing?


It is the time when God will wipe away all tears. (Rev. 21:4)


The woman gave birth to the messiah, who was caught up to heaven. This has in no way happened yet? I disagree
Jesus said satan was to be cast out at his death and ascension, do you disagree?


That was not what I was saying. The woman's exodus has not happened yet. The Messiah's ascension into Heaven has, but the woman's exodus into the wilderness has yet to take place.


And what does this have to do with the LXX of Daniel 11:31 fitting nicely with the hebrew of Daniel 8?


You are the one who claimed that Daniel was written in Aramaic before it was written in Hebrew and I was pointing out that scriptures denied that they were originally written in Aramaic because that was not among the languages in which Pilate had written the sign placed above the head of Jesus when He was crucified.


There is no recorded history of zealots setting up an image in the temple. There is recorded history of the romans doing that when they took the temple in 70ad. However, Where does scripture define the AOD as an image?

There is no recorded history of the zealots demanding people to worship them as God. They only demanded that the people trapped inside Jerusalem followed their cause in rebellion, otherwise they would be slaughtered. But I don't see where 2 thessalonians 2 mentions the man of sin "demanding worship". I only read that he exalts HIMSELF above all objects of worship.


The man of sin declaring himself to be God ought to be a good indicator. There are other scriptures that make that even more clear. The Romans did not set that image up while the Temple was still standing but did so after it was destroyed. The Abomination of Desolation will be in a Temple that is not destroyed.


And the temple fell in 70ad in fulfillment of the olivet discourse (mark 13, matthew 24, and luke 21). History records this.
Those of the earthly Jerusalem will never inherit with those of the heavenly Jerusalem (galatians 4:24-31).


History is consistent with Luke's account, but not consistent with those of Mark 13 and Matthew 24
and those of the earthly Jerusalem can inherit with those of Heavenly Jerusalem if they believe on the Lord. You make it sound as though you think those presently living in Jerusalem are irredeemable.


According to the book of Acts, God fulfilled his promise to David at the resurrection of Christ.


Which will be made manifest when Jesus returns to the earth.


I use the LXX, the YLT, the KJV, and NIV. Maybe you could provide the specific verse you are talking about. I don't see any verses that specifically mention Jesus coming to earth to reign for 1,000 years.


Revelation chapter 19 is all about His return to the earth.
Revelation 20:1-4 is the length of His reign on this present earth.


Paul quotes from Ezekiel and states we are the temple of God, as God has said.

2 corinthians 6:16 What agreement can exist between the temple of God and idols? For we are the temple of the living God. As God has said: “I will live with them and walk among them, and I will be their God, and they will be My people.”

Ezekiel 37:26-27 And I will make a covenant of peace with them; it will be an everlasting covenant. I will establish them and multiply them, and I will set My sanctuary among them forever. My dwelling place will be with them; I will be their God, and they will be My people.

Now that I have shown a NT verse that supports my position, Please show in the NT where Ezekiel's vision is specifically addressed and interpreted as literal, in order to support your position.


You have regurgitated an argument that was already answered in a previous post. Paul was pointing to the purity of the forthcoming Temple in Ezekiel's vision as an example of how God's spiritual Temple should be, but neither he nor any of the other Apostles ever called Ezekiel's vision an allegory or symbolic.


Numbers 12:6-8 sets the context. God would speak to the prophets of Israel in vision/dreams/riddles, and NOT straight forward like he spoke to Moses.

Numbers 12:6-8 He said, “Hear now My words: If there is a prophet among you, I, the LORD, will reveal Myself to him in a vision; I will speak to him in a dream. But this is not so with My servant Moses; he is faithful in all My house. I speak with him face to face, clearly and not in riddles;
he sees the form of the LORD.

This is confirmed by the prophet hosea

Hosea 12:10 I spoke through the prophets and multiplied their visions;I gave parables through the prophets.

Both literal and symbolic interpretation can lead to theories and conjectures if its not based on the teachings of Jesus and the epistles. Jesus and the epistles, through the Spirit, teach us how to interpret the OT and the book of Revelation.


Those dreams, visions, and riddles also came with interpretations, even if in some cases those interpretations were not revealed until the prophecy was fulfilled and theories and conjecture arise the most often when call symbolic scripture that is never declared to be. But when understanding of the scripture is confined to the parameters of the text itself, theories and conjectures are kept at a minimum.
 
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So your claim of "not true" is proven false.

A. as you have heard the antichrist is coming
as you have heard coca cola orange is coming

B. so now many antichrists have come
so now coca cola orange is in many stores.

You state the coca cola orange in statement A is the same as the one in statement B. However, you state the antichrist in statement A is not the same as the antichrists in statement B.

You argument is not consistent. If you stated that the coca cola orange in statement A is different that statement B, then your logic would be consistent and would match your interpretation of the passage in 1 John 2.

But it's clear that if you stated the coca cola orange from statement A is different then statement B, you would be throwing logic out the window. Thus, we can see that your interpretation of 1 John 2:18 is illogical.


No, my claim of "not true" has not been proven false because in your analogy, there is only one Coca Cola orange. We would know it if we saw it. It would have a description and a brand attached to it that is not attached to other sodas.

While we are awaiting for the arrival of Coca-Cola orange, there may be other orange flavored sodas that precede it (i.e. Pepsi orange, Dr. Pepper orange, 7UP orange, etc.) but they will not be the same as the Coca-Cola orange as though they may possess the same color and flavor, it is only Coca-Cola's brand and design that will set their orange soda apart from the rest.

Likewise, the Anti-Christ to come will have actions and attributes tied to him that will set him apart from other antichrists that have come before him. They may all possess in common enmity towards Christ, but the Anti-Christ to come will still be set apart from the rest by actions that he will do that others before him have tried to do but have failed to do.
 
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claninja

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Then you have got a serious problem in that if the Old Covenant had not vanished away when Christ rose from the dead, the New Covenant could not have come into effect until the destruction of the Temple, only the Temple was destroyed due to judgment for rejecting Christ, not because it was made obsolete as a place of worship. The only other possibility is that the cited passage may also be in reference to this present world which is also destined to pass away along with the sin, death, decay, and misery that is in it.

I absolutely agree the old covenant was made obsolete at the cross. BUT scripture is very clear that while it was made obsolete it had not yet vanished.

Hebrews 8:13 In speaking of a new covenant, he makes the first one obsolete. And what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.

2 corinthians 3:11 For if what is being brought to an end came with glory, much more will what is permanent have glory.

The slaves of the old covenant, born according to the flesh, were persecuting the free children of new covenant, born according to the spirit.

Galatians 4:28-29 Now you,f brothers, like Isaac, are children of promise. But just as at that time he who was born according to the flesh persecuted him who was born according to the Spirit, so also it is now

But if the Old Covenant had not vanished away upon Christ's death resurrection, then that means every follower of Christ was still in their sins and died in their sins, remaining separated from God until the destruction of the Temple in Jerusalem, meaning their faith in the efficacy of Christ's sacrifice on the cross for their sins would have been rendered worthless with the Temple still standing. You are essence saying that the presence of the Jewish Temple was more powerful than the blood of Christ that was shed to take away sins.

Only those (i''m talking about those under the law not everyone in general) who remained slaves to the old covenant and did not die to it in order to belong to another, were still in their sins.

Romans 7:4-5 Likewise, my brothers, you also have died to the law through the body of Christ, so that you may belong to another, to him who has been raised from the dead, in order that we may bear fruit for God. For while we were living in the flesh, our sinful passions, aroused by the law, were at work in our members to bear fruit for death.

And at what point did believers stop worshipping at Jerusalem altogether, regardless of whether or not a Temple was present? Never. There have always been believers worshipping Christ wherever they are at from day one. When Jesus said that a time was coming when no one would go to a certain place to worship, it had nothing to do with the Temple. That is your addition to His Words.

You keep switching the topic from temple associated worship to general worship. Again, Jesus' comment in John 4:21 is specifically associated with temple worship.

If Zechariah chapter 14 is to be rendered symbolic, what would have to be established are:


1. What Jerusalem out of whom the living water flows represents.

2. What the geographic locations of where the waters flow to represent.

3. Who the nations are that come against Jerusalem and who the survivors of those nations are supposed to be.

4. What the Feast of Tabernacles is supposed to represent.

5. What the rain is that will be withheld from the nations that refuse to present themselves before the Lord in Jerusalem each year during the feast of Tabernacles.

1. New Jerusalem
Revelation 22:1 Then the angel showed me the river of the water of life, bright as crystal, flowing from the throne of God and of the Lamb

Zechariah 14:8 On that day living waters shall flow out from Jerusalem, half of them to the eastern sead and half of them to the western sea

2. The living water is the Spirit, as attested by the scriptures. I would argue this is the movement of the Spirit and spreading of the gospel.

John 7:38-39 Whoever believes in me, asf the Scripture has said, ‘Out of his heart will flow rivers of living water.’” Now this he said about the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were to receive, for as yet the Spirit had not been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified

3. I would argue these are the nations that gathered together against the earthly Jerusalem leading up to, and after, the Death of Christ and His ascension from the mount of olives to the right hand of power, which results in the New Jerusalem and flowing of living waters.

Acts 1:12 Then they returned to Jerusalem from the mount called Olivet, which is near Jerusalem, a Sabbath day’s journey away.

John 7:38-39 Whoever believes in me, asf the Scripture has said, ‘Out of his heart will flow rivers of living water.’” Now this he said about the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were to receive, for as yet the Spirit had not been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified


4. The feasts are only a shadow of Christ.

Colossians 2:16-17 Therefore let no one pass judgment on you in questions of food and drink, or with regard to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath. These are a shadow of the things coming, but the substance belongs to Christ.

5. There is no NT scripture that directly references this, so my interpretation would be that those who do not belong to the New Jerusalem do not receive God's spiritual blessings. Again this is my personal interpretation based on the previous 4 points, no NT scripture states this.


History says otherwise. Jesus did not return in the first century which can only mean that there is a number of people from that generation who are still alive and hidden away until His return.

This assumes that Jesus coming is different that the comings of God in the OT.

God came down from heaven to defeat David's enemies (2 samuel 22:1, 10-11)
God came down from heaven to destroy the Egyptians (Isaiah 19:1)
God came down from heaven to destroy Samaria (Micah 1:1-6).

Jesus himself claims that God, the vineyard owner, would come to destroy the wicked tenants, of whom the pharisees realized were the subject of the parable (Matthew 21:40-45).

So does history attest that the temple and city where destroyed in 66-70ad by the coming of the vineyard owner? Yes it does.

I can't believe your logical argument for "this generation" is that there are 2,000 year old people walking around still.......

I believe it, even though we still die. That is because those of us who do died will not stay dead and not everyone will die before the return of the Lord.

So you agree we never die spiritually, even if we die physically. Good. So what happens to believers who never die spiritually, but die physically? Do they sleep in the ground awaiting the future resurrection or do they go home to be with the Lord?


How can they be in two places at once?

Scripture does not say they are in 2 places at once. Scripture states they are outside of the New Jerusalem, and Scripture also states that their portion "will be" in the lake of fire, which is the 2nd death. Thus while the wicked do exist outside of the New Jerusalem and can never enter it, they will eventually end up in the lake of fire.

But this doesn't answer my question. For some reason you always skirt around my questions, even though I always try to give you the courtesy of answering yours. So I will ask again, why does revelation only mention the wicked outside of the New Jerusalem and not outside of the New heavens and New earth?


It is the time when God will wipe away all tears. (Rev. 21:4)

I agree. But that avoids my question. What do the nations need healing if everything is "perfect".

That was not what I was saying. The woman's exodus has not happened yet. The Messiah's ascension into Heaven has, but the woman's exodus into the wilderness has yet to take place.

I disagree the woman's exodus has not happened. For Christ is clear that Satan was cast out at his ascension and the the prince of the world was "coming".

John 12:30-33 n response, Jesus said, “This voice was not for My benefit, but yours. Now judgment is upon this world; now the prince of this world will be cast out. And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself.” He said this to indicate the kind of death He was going to die.

John 14:30 I will not speak with you much longer, for the prince of this world is coming, and he has no claim on Me

This casting out at Christ's ascension and coming to persecute His followers fits perfectly with revelation 12. For it is when the male child is caught up to heaven that the dragon is cast out and attempts to persecute the woman.

Revelation 12:5-6 he gave birth to a male child, one who is to rulea all the nations with a rod of iron, but her child was caught up to God and to his throne, 6and the woman fled into the wilderness, where she has a place prepared by God, in which she is to be nourished for 1,260 days.

Revelation 12:13-14 And when the dragon saw that he had been thrown down to the earth, he pursued the woman who had given birth to the male child. But the woman was given the two wings of the great eagle so that she might fly from the serpent into the wilderness, to the place where she is to be nourished for a time, and times, and half a time.

You are free to believe that satan wasn't "cast out" at Christ's ascension, but that is opposite of the scriptures


You are the one who claimed that Daniel was written in Aramaic before it was written in Hebrew and I was pointing out that scriptures denied that they were originally written in Aramaic because that was not among the languages in which Pilate had written the sign placed above the head of Jesus when He was crucified.

I stated Daniel was written in both Aramaic and Hebrew, as attested by scholars (The Aramaic of the Book of Daniel on JSTOR). But What does this have to do with the LXX of Daniel 11:31 correlating nicely with the Hebrew of Daniel 8?


The man of sin declaring himself to be God ought to be a good indicator. There are other scriptures that make that even more clear. The Romans did not set that image up while the Temple was still standing but did so after it was destroyed. The Abomination of Desolation will be in a Temple that is not destroyed.

I agree that the standards were set up in the temple that had already been burned, but not after every stone torn down yet. Additionally, The temple had already been profaned by the zealots 3-4 years prior to the romans destroying it and setting up their standards.

Where does scripture define the AOD? what specific passage are you using to come up with your definition of the AOD?


Which will be made manifest when Jesus returns to the earth.

Already fulfilled at the resurrection of Christ according to Peter (acts 2:30-31)

Revelation chapter 19 is all about His return to the earth.
Revelation 20:1-4 is the length of His reign on this present earth.

I disagree. I believe the 2nd half of revelation 19 to be apocalyptic and symbolic language describing the cross, Christ's victory, and the spread of the gospel

Revelation 19:19 And I saw the beast and the kings of the earth with their armies gathered to make war against him who was sitting on the horse and against his army

Acts 4:25-27 who through the mouth of our father David, your servant,d said by the Holy Spirit, “‘Why did the nations rage, and the peoples plot in vain? The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers were gathered together, against the Lord and against his Anointede—or truly in this city there were gathered together against your holy servant Jesus, whom you anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the nations and the peoples of Israel,

Colossians 2:15 He disarmed the rulers and authorities and put them to open shame, by triumphing over them in him

John 6:53-56 So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you. Whoever feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day. For my flesh is true food, and my blood is true drink. Whoever feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood abides in me, and I in him

Ezekiel 39:17 ‘Assemble and come, gather from all around to my sacrificial feast that I am preparing for you, a great sacrificial feast on the mountains of Israel, and you shall eat flesh and drink blood.

Additionally, revelation 20:1-4 doesn't mention the length of reign of Jesus on earth. It only mentions the length of the saints reigning with Jesus. So I'm still not sure where exactly your getting Christ reigning on earth for a 1000 years from.

Revelation 20:4 They lived and reigned with Christ for a thousand years.


You have regurgitated an argument that was already answered in a previous post. Paul was pointing to the purity of the forthcoming Temple in Ezekiel's vision as an example of how God's spiritual Temple should be, but neither he nor any of the other Apostles ever called Ezekiel's vision an allegory or symbolic.

Paul doesn't point to a "future" earthly temple building. He states the body of Christ is the temple and then quotes from Ezekiel.

2 Corinthians 6:16 For we are the temple of the living God.

1 corinthians 3:16 Do you not know that you yourselves are God’s temple, and that God’s Spirit dwells ina you?

Ephesians 2:21-22 n Him the whole building is fitted together and grows into a holy temple in the Lord. And in Him you too are being built together into a dwelling place for God in His Spirit.

While you may disagree with me, So far you have produced ZERO NT scripture that supports your interpretation of the Ezekiel temple as a literal future earthly building where believers worship.


Those dreams, visions, and riddles also came with interpretations, even if in some cases those interpretations were not revealed until the prophecy was fulfilled and theories and conjecture arise the most often when call symbolic scripture that is never declared to be. But when understanding of the scripture is confined to the parameters of the text itself, theories and conjectures are kept at a minimum.

I have no disagreement when symbolism results in speculation and theories.

If your not familiar with this website, there are also hundreds of different "literal" interpretations of the prophets and revelation. Symbolic and literal interpretations, without using the gospels and epistles, only lead to speculations and theories. Thus, interpretations should always be rooted in the gospels and epistles. for "the OT is the NT concealed" and "the NT is the OT revealed".



 
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claninja

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No, my claim of "not true" has not been proven false because in your analogy, there is only one Coca Cola orange. We would know it if we saw it. It would have a description and a brand attached to it that is not attached to other sodas.

While we are awaiting for the arrival of Coca-Cola orange, there may be other orange flavored sodas that precede it (i.e. Pepsi orange, Dr. Pepper orange, 7UP orange, etc.) but they will not be the same as the Coca-Cola orange as though they may possess the same color and flavor, it is only Coca-Cola's brand and design that will set their orange soda apart from the rest.

Likewise, the Anti-Christ to come will have actions and attributes tied to him that will set him apart from other antichrists that have come before him. They may all possess in common enmity towards Christ, but the Anti-Christ to come will still be set apart from the rest by actions that he will do that others before him have tried to do but have failed to do.

So you have to change in the earthly scenario in order to make your "not true" not false, because obviously the original "orange coca cola scenario" shows your logic false.

However, even then your argument fails. If you change the argument to generic orange soda, then you have to change the first part of the earthly scenario.

A.) "you have heard orange soda is coming"
"you have heard antichrist is coming:

B.) "now there are orange doctor peppers, orange 7ups, orange pepsis, orange coca colas in every store"
"now there are many antichrists"

B fulfills A. The NOW presence of different orange sodas fulfills the past hearing of future coming orange soda. There is no mention of a specific antichrist in the letters of John. Nor is the antichrist specifically mentioned in any other Biblical writings. Thus specifically waiting for orange coca cola as opposed to other brands of orange soda doesn't work as a counter argument as there is no mention of a specific antichrist in Johns epistles.

However, if John mentioned a specific antichrist out of all the antichrists, then your argument would work.
 
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sovereigngrace

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I absolutely agree the old covenant was made obsolete at the cross. BUT scripture is very clear that while it was made obsolete it had not yet vanished.

Hebrews 8:13 In speaking of a new covenant, he makes the first one obsolete. And what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.

2 corinthians 3:11 For if what is being brought to an end came with glory, much more will what is permanent have glory.

The slaves of the old covenant, born according to the flesh, were persecuting the free children of new covenant, born according to the spirit.

The new covenant was made with His blood. Once Christ gave up the ghost, the curtain in the temple was ripped into, do you noting that the old covenant was rendered useless. Whilst the cross ushered in the new covenant, and the removal of the old covenant, many of the outward manifestations of the old covenant still remained, because of the ignorance and rebellion of man. God dismantled to hold outward facade of the disannulled covenant, removing every last vestige of it.

Just because it took 40 years to destroy the temple did not insinuate that it was still valid or acceptable. There was only covenant at a time.

The writer here is not in any way suggesting that the Old Covenant continues to be valid. The whole book of Hebrews is teaching the opposite. He is simply explaining how the Old has been removed and replaced with the New. He is saying that whilst it continues to be active in the lives of Jewish unbelievers (in his day) with the continuation of visible ordinances in the temple. It has decayed and has waxed old and will very soon (AD 70) be finally and eternally removed.

Whilst the Cross ushered in the new covenant, and the removal of the old covenant, many of the outward manifestations of the old covenant still remained. God had vowed to remove every last vestige of the old. This He did. He graciously gave them 40 years to repent (AD 30-AD 70). Not long after this epistle was written, the temple with its now-rejected sacrifices was finally destroyed. With the destruction of the temple, the temple sacrifices vanished forever.

That which is made old and becomes obsolete (the Old Covenant) had not yet disappeared, not because it was not yet made old and had not yet become obsolete, but because unbelieving Jews continued to practice it, not legitimately in wisdom but illegitimately in foolishness and blindness.
 
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claninja

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The new covenant was made with His blood. Once Christ gave up the ghost, the curtain in the temple was ripped into, do you noting that the old covenant was rendered useless. Whilst the cross ushered in the new covenant, and the removal of the old covenant, many of the outward manifestations of the old covenant still remained, because of the ignorance and rebellion of man. God dismantled to hold outward facade of the disannulled covenant, removing every last vestige of it.

Just because it took 40 years to destroy the temple did not insinuate that it was still valid or acceptable. There was only covenant at a time.

The writer here is not in any way suggesting that the Old Covenant continues to be valid. The whole book of Hebrews is teaching the opposite. He is simply explaining how the Old has been removed and replaced with the New. He is saying that whilst it continues to be active in the lives of Jewish unbelievers (in his day) with the continuation of visible ordinances in the temple. It has decayed and has waxed old and will very soon (AD 70) be finally and eternally removed.

Whilst the Cross ushered in the new covenant, and the removal of the old covenant, many of the outward manifestations of the old covenant still remained. God had vowed to remove every last vestige of the old. This He did. He graciously gave them 40 years to repent (AD 30-AD 70). Not long after this epistle was written, the temple with its now-rejected sacrifices was finally destroyed. With the destruction of the temple, the temple sacrifices vanished forever.

That which is made old and becomes obsolete (the Old Covenant) had not yet disappeared, not because it was not yet made old and had not yet become obsolete, but because unbelieving Jews continued to practice it, not legitimately in wisdom but illegitimately in foolishness and blindness.

I absolutely agree with you. You worded this very nicely. The 40 years of grace allowed the Jews to die to the law, which was obsolete albeit still being practiced, in order to belong to Christ (romans 7:1-6). After 70AD it became impossible to practice the law of Moses according to that old outdated covenant that had been made obsolete at the cross.
 
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I absolutely agree the old covenant was made obsolete at the cross. BUT scripture is very clear that while it was made obsolete it had not yet vanished.


The Old Testament cannot be both obsolete and yet not vanish and the scriptures you cite extend to a broader application than jus the Old Covenant.


Only those (i''m talking about those under the law not everyone in general) who remained slaves to the old covenant and did not die to it in order to belong to another, were still in their sins.


Just as it is with those relying on the Old Covenant and the law today. But it is also the same with anyone who places their faith in anything else apart from Christ for salvation and favor with God.


You keep switching the topic from temple associated worship to general worship. Again, Jesus' comment in John 4:21 is specifically associated with temple worship.


And you have missed the point of what Jesus is saying to us: It did matter to God where people worshipped Him, even when there was a Temple. It does not matter now. And it will not matter where we worship Him even if another Temple were to arise once more in our lifetime. Why, because God desires sincere worship, not an outward performance.


I would argue these are the nations that gathered together against the earthly Jerusalem leading up to, and after, the Death of Christ and His ascension from the mount of olives to the right hand of power, which results in the New Jerusalem and flowing of living waters.


The seas into which these waters flow are geographical locations. What would the geographical represent?


The feasts are only a shadow of Christ.


I am afraid it is not that simple if you are going to insist on an allegorical approach as the feast of tabernacles would also have to represent something that we are all required to observe.


There is no NT scripture that directly references this, so my interpretation would be that those who do not belong to the New Jerusalem do not receive God's spiritual blessings. Again this is my personal interpretation based on the previous 4 points, no NT scripture states this.


You claim that Zechariah 14 is symbolic and yet admit that your interpretation of it is your interpretation which means it could have a number of different meanings because not everyone viewing it as symbolic is going to come to the same conclusions you have. Without an explanation from the text to explain to us what everything means, how can we be so sure what interpretation is the correct one?


This assumes that Jesus coming is different that the comings of God in the OT.

God came down from heaven to defeat David's enemies (2 samuel 22:1, 10-11)
God came down from heaven to destroy the Egyptians (Isaiah 19:1)
God came down from heaven to destroy Samaria (Micah 1:1-6).

Jesus himself claims that God, the vineyard owner, would come to destroy the wicked tenants, of whom the pharisees realized were the subject of the parable (Matthew 21:40-45).


So does history attest that the temple and city where destroyed in 66-70ad by the coming of the vineyard owner? Yes it does.

I can't believe your logical argument for "this generation" is that there are 2,000 year old people walking around still.......


When the scriptures speak of the return of Christ, they are talking about His physical return to the earth, not only to bring judgment, but also to reign and it is because you believe that God is limited in power, you also believe that He is not capable of sustaining some individuals from a certain long enough to fulfill prophecy exactly as He said even though scripture has alluded to such a possibility.


So you agree we never die spiritually, even if we die physically. Good. So what happens to believers who never die spiritually, but die physically? Do they sleep in the ground awaiting the future resurrection or do they go home to be with the Lord?


Scripture says that to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord. (2 Cor. 5:8)


For some reason you always skirt around my questions, even though I always try to give you the courtesy of answering yours. So I will ask again, why does revelation only mention the wicked outside of the New Jerusalem and not outside of the New heavens and New earth?


You only have two possible conclusions:


1. The Bible is contradicting itself (Not a viable solution if you believe in the inerrancy of scripture)

2. Deliberate transgression is still possible in the New Heavens and the New Earth; the consequence being that the transgressors are prohibited entry into the New Jerusalem, and thereby will not receive the benefits of the tree of life and will eventually succumb to the second death.


You are challenging me on things that have not even come to pass yet and because they have not come to pass yet, we will never fully understand them until they do come to pass and while an allegorical interpretation may seem to be an easy solution, that also has problems of its own.



I agree. But that avoids my question. What do the nations need healing if everything is "perfect".


In the New Heavens and the New Earth, death is no more. It has been cast into the Lake of Fire along with every other evil, but that there are nations existent in the New Heavens and the New Earth tell us that there must be nations that survive the coming destruction of this present earth and enter into the New Heavens and the New Earth, but just because death is an enemy defeated, that does not mean that it hasn't left its scars and damage behind which may be where the "healing of the nations" comes in.

I disagree the woman's exodus has not happened. For Christ is clear that Satan was cast out at his ascension and the the prince of the world was "coming".


I see nothing in history that reflects the exodus of this woman after the ascension of Jesus nor the length of time foretold in scripture for which she will be in exile.


This casting out at Christ's ascension and coming to persecute His followers fits perfectly with revelation 12. For it is when the male child is caught up to heaven that the dragon is cast out and attempts to persecute the woman.


The dragon is only cast out of Heaven when he attempts to wage war there once more. There is no evidence that this has already happened a second time.


You are free to believe that satan wasn't "cast out" at Christ's ascension, but that is opposite of the scriptures


There is already proof of Christ's ascension into Heaven. There is nothing to indicate that Satan's access to Heaven has already been cut off. The scripture does not call him the accuser of the bretheren (followers of Christ) in vain.


I stated Daniel was written in both Aramaic and Hebrew, as attested by scholars (The Aramaic of the Book of Daniel on JSTOR). But What does this have to do with the LXX of Daniel 11:31 correlating nicely with the Hebrew of Daniel 8?


You had claimed that Daniel was written in Aramaic and I was simply pointing out a passage from scripture showing that this was likely false. Given a choice of whom to believe on that matter, I will believe the scriptures.


I agree that the standards were set up in the temple that had already been burned, but not after every stone torn down yet. Additionally, The temple had already been profaned by the zealots 3-4 years prior to the romans destroying it and setting up their standards.
Where does scripture define the AOD? what specific passage are you using to come up with your definition of the AOD?


I am sure that I have already shown it to you before in previous posts: 2 Thessalonians 2:3-4.



Already fulfilled at the resurrection of Christ according to Peter (acts 2:30-31)


We know that Christ is sitting at the right hand of the Father. But it is when He returns to earth that we will see Him on the throne of David. But if the throne of David is in Heaven, the at what point in history was it ever taken up? And who witnessed the ascension of that throne?


I disagree. I believe the 2nd half of revelation 19 to be apocalyptic and symbolic language describing the cross, Christ's victory, and the spread of the gospel



Well no wonder why you are blind to the scriptures that clearly portray His return as literal. You render them in a way that is different than how they present themselves. Apocalyptic? Yes. Symbolic? No. They present His return and His reign as literal.


Additionally, revelation 20:1-4 doesn't mention the length of reign of Jesus on earth. It only mentions the length of the saints reigning with Jesus. So I'm still not sure where exactly your getting Christ reigning on earth for a 1000 years from.



The thousand year reign on this present earth applies to both. There is no separating the two.


Paul doesn't point to a "future" earthly temple building. He states the body of Christ is the temple and then quotes from Ezekiel.


He was using an example from text presented as literal to teach us how the spiritual temple should be.


While you may disagree with me, So far you have produced ZERO NT scripture that supports your interpretation of the Ezekiel temple as a literal future earthly building where believers worship.


And you haven't produced any NT scripture that directly addresses it as being symbolic.


I have no disagreement when symbolism results in speculation and theories.

If your not familiar with this website, there are also hundreds of different "literal" interpretations of the prophets and revelation. Symbolic and literal interpretations, without using the gospels and epistles, only lead to speculations and theories. Thus, interpretations should always be rooted in the gospels and epistles. for "the OT is the NT concealed" and "the NT is the OT revealed".


Symbolic and literal interpretations without using the full counsel of scripture (both OT and NT) are what lead to theories and speculations, but more often with unwarranted symbolic interpretations than with literal interpretations since the vast majority of scripture is presented in a literal format.
 
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So you have to change in the earthly scenario in order to make your "not true" not false, because obviously the original "orange coca cola scenario" shows your logic false.

However, even then your argument fails. If you change the argument to generic orange soda, then you have to change the first part of the earthly scenario.

A.) "you have heard orange soda is coming"
"you have heard antichrist is coming:

B.) "now there are orange doctor peppers, orange 7ups, orange pepsis, orange coca colas in every store"
"now there are many antichrists"

B fulfills A. The NOW presence of different orange sodas fulfills the past hearing of future coming orange soda. There is no mention of a specific antichrist in the letters of John. Nor is the antichrist specifically mentioned in any other Biblical writings. Thus specifically waiting for orange coca cola as opposed to other brands of orange soda doesn't work as a counter argument as there is no mention of a specific antichrist in Johns epistles.

However, if John mentioned a specific antichrist out of all the antichrists, then your argument would work.


Your analogies do not best fit what the Apostle John was saying in regards to the coming antichrist. He affirmed previous foretellings of a specific Anti-Christ that was to come but then went on to say that other antichrists have already come before him. The reason why the title of Anti-Christ does not appear throughout the rest of scripture is because he also goes by other titles; all of which are tied to the same person of the same character and who will perform specific actions.

The orange soda analogy fails in that it contradicts itself by claiming that orange soda has already arrived while saying that it is one its way. Both cannot be true and therefore is not able to represent what John has said in regards to the Anti-Christ. He was not contradicting the prophecies foretelling the coming Anti-Christ when he was warning the Church that other antichrists preceding the one to come had already come into the world, but there are things about the Anti-Christ to come that do set him apart from those who have come before him.
 
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claninja

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The Old Testament cannot be both obsolete and yet not vanish and the scriptures you cite extend to a broader application than jus the Old Covenant.

Scripture is very clear that the old obsolete covenant had not yet vanished away (hebrews 8:13).

@sovereigngrace put it very nicely:

"The writer here is not in any way suggesting that the Old Covenant continues to be valid. The whole book of Hebrews is teaching the opposite. He is simply explaining how the Old has been removed and replaced with the New. He is saying that whilst it continues to be active in the lives of Jewish unbelievers (in his day) with the continuation of visible ordinances in the temple. It has decayed and has waxed old and will very soon (AD 70) be finally and eternally removed.

Whilst the Cross ushered in the new covenant, and the removal of the old covenant, many of the outward manifestations of the old covenant still remained. God had vowed to remove every last vestige of the old. This He did. He graciously gave them 40 years to repent (AD 30-AD 70). Not long after this epistle was written, the temple with its now-rejected sacrifices was finally destroyed. With the destruction of the temple, the temple sacrifices vanished forever."

Just as it is with those relying on the Old Covenant and the law today. But it is also the same with anyone who places their faith in anything else apart from Christ for salvation and favor with God.

It has been made impossible to follow old covenant for the last 2,000 years as the temple was removed in 70AD.

And you have missed the point of what Jesus is saying to us: It did matter to God where people worshipped Him, even when there was a Temple. It does not matter now. And it will not matter where we worship Him even if another Temple were to arise once more in our lifetime. Why, because God desires sincere worship, not an outward performance.

So then, if as you say, "it will not matter where we worship Him", you are in agreement that we will not be required to go Jerusalem once a year to partake in the feast of tabernacles?

The seas into which these waters flow are geographical locations. What would the geographical represent?

Interesting you did not address that the Jerusalem with living waters flowing from it in zechariah 14 is the same as the Jerusalem in revelation 22 with living waters flowing from it. Are you then in agreement?

If the living waters is the Spirit, as attested by NT scripture (John 7:38-39), then the movement of the living waters to the east and west seas, represents the movement of the Spirit.

John 7:38-39 Whoever believes in me, asf the Scripture has said, ‘Out of his heart will flow rivers of living water.’” Now this he said about the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were to receive, for as yet the Spirit had not been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.

I am afraid it is not that simple if you are going to insist on an allegorical approach as the feast of tabernacles would also have to represent something that we are all required to observe.

all the feasts are allegorical of Christ. Christ fulfilled them. Thus we no longer need to worship according to the feasts as they were only a shadow (colossians 2:16-17).

NT scripture directly contradicts your literal interpretation of the end of zechariah 14.


You claim that Zechariah 14 is symbolic and yet admit that your interpretation of it is your interpretation which means it could have a number of different meanings because not everyone viewing it as symbolic is going to come to the same conclusions you have. Without an explanation from the text to explain to us what everything means, how can we be so sure what interpretation is the correct one?

Don't take things out of context. I stated the interpretation of the rain falling on only those who go up worship at the feast of tabernacles is my interpretation based on the previous 4 points, not zechariah as a whole, for as I posted to your 4 other points, we can find multiple NT scriptures that corroborate the fulfillment of zechariah 14.


When the scriptures speak of the return of Christ, they are talking about His physical return to the earth, not only to bring judgment, but also to reign and it is because you believe that God is limited in power, you also believe that He is not capable of sustaining some individuals from a certain long enough to fulfill prophecy exactly as He said even though scripture has alluded to such a possibility.

I agree the coming is physical. However, why would it be different than the times God came down from heaven in the OT?

Scripture says that to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord. (2 Cor. 5:8)

In the context of the resurrection. The spirit was given as a guarantee of the resurrection.

2 corinthians 5:4-5 For while we are still in this tent, we groan, being burdened—not that we would be unclothed, but that we would be further clothed, so that what is mortal may be swallowed up by life. He who has prepared us for this very thing is God, who has given us the Spirit as a guarantee.

Ephesians 1:13-14 In him you also, when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and believed in him, were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit, who is the guaranteed of our inheritance until we acquire possession of it,e to the praise of his glory.

You only have two possible conclusions:


1. The Bible is contradicting itself (Not a viable solution if you believe in the inerrancy of scripture)

2. Deliberate transgression is still possible in the New Heavens and the New Earth; the consequence being that the transgressors are prohibited entry into the New Jerusalem, and thereby will not receive the benefits of the tree of life and will eventually succumb to the second death.


You are challenging me on things that have not even come to pass yet and because they have not come to pass yet, we will never fully understand them until they do come to pass and while an allegorical interpretation may seem to be an easy solution, that also has problems of its own.

So it seems based on option 2, you believe people can still sin in the new heavens and new earth. Interesting......


In the New Heavens and the New Earth, death is no more. It has been cast into the Lake of Fire along with every other evil, but that there are nations existent in the New Heavens and the New Earth tell us that there must be nations that survive the coming destruction of this present earth and enter into the New Heavens and the New Earth, but just because death is an enemy defeated, that does not mean that it hasn't left its scars and damage behind which may be where the "healing of the nations" comes in.

Death is already no more for those who are in Christ.

John 11:26 and everyone who lives and believes in me shall never die. Do you believe this?
John 3:16

I see nothing in history that reflects the exodus of this woman after the ascension of Jesus nor the length of time foretold in scripture for which she will be in exile.

Read through the book of acts, especially chapters 1-8

The dragon is only cast out of Heaven when he attempts to wage war there once more. There is no evidence that this has already happened a second time.

Revelation 12 is the symbolic vision as to what occurred at the cross.

There is already proof of Christ's ascension into Heaven. There is nothing to indicate that Satan's access to Heaven has already been cut off. The scripture does not call him the accuser of the bretheren (followers of Christ) in vain.

So then you agree or disagree with the words of Jesus, where he specifically states that satan was cast out when He was lifted up?

John 12:31-323 Now is the judgment of this world; now will the ruler of this world be cast out. And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.” He said this to show by what kind of death he was going to die.

You had claimed that Daniel was written in Aramaic and I was simply pointing out a passage from scripture showing that this was likely false. Given a choice of whom to believe on that matter, I will believe the scriptures.

For the 4th or 5th time now, what does this have to do with the LXX of Daniel 11:31 fitting nicely with the hebrew of Daniel 8?

I am sure that I have already shown it to you before in previous posts: 2 Thessalonians 2:3-4.

This verse does not mention the AOD, so I don't know what you are talking about.

We know that Christ is sitting at the right hand of the Father. But it is when He returns to earth that we will see Him on the throne of David. But if the throne of David is in Heaven, the at what point in history was it ever taken up? And who witnessed the ascension of that throne?

Well no wonder why you are blind to the scriptures that clearly portray His return as literal. You render them in a way that is different than how they present themselves. Apocalyptic? Yes. Symbolic? No. They present His return and His reign as literal.

So you believe Jesus will return from heaven riding on a horse, with a literal sword coming out of his mouth? You don't believe the sword is symbolic.

The thousand year reign on this present earth applies to both. There is no separating the two.

Right, so you can't actually post a verse that states Christ physically reigns on earth for 1,000 years.

He was using an example from text presented as literal to teach us how the spiritual temple should be.

Incorrect, Paul does not say we are "like" the temple, Paul states we "are" the temple.

This is evident as Paul refers to the body of Christ as the temple multiple times (ephesians 2:20-22, 1 corinthians 3:16).

Paul never once mentions a future earthly physical temple building.


And you haven't produced any NT scripture that directly addresses it as being symbolic.

I have. Paul clearly quotes Ezekiel when referring to the body of Christ as the temple and not a literal temple building.

2 corinthians 6:16 What agreement has the temple of God with idols? For we are the temple of the living God; as God said, “I will make my dwelling among them and walk among them, and I will be their God, and they shall be my people.

You are using classing "whataboutism", which deflects the argument from you. You may disagree with verse I posted, and I disagree with your counter argument, but you should at least should be able to post a counter verse that supports a literal future earthly temple building. So far you haven't.


Symbolic and literal interpretations without using the full counsel of scripture (both OT and NT) are what lead to theories and speculations, but more often with unwarranted symbolic interpretations than with literal interpretations since the vast majority of scripture is presented in a literal format.

"literal format" contradicts scripture. For God himself stated he would speak to the prophets of Israel in visions and dreams and riddles, and NOT like how he spoke clearly with moses.

Numbers 12:6-8 And he said, “Hear my words: If there is a prophet among you, I the LORD make myself known to him in a vision; I speak with him in a dream. 7Not so with my servant Moses. He is faithful in all my house. With him I speak mouth to mouth, clearly, and not in riddles, and he beholds the form of the LORD. Why then were you not afraid to speak against my servant Moses?”
 
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claninja

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Your analogies do not best fit what the Apostle John was saying in regards to the coming antichrist. He affirmed previous foretellings of a specific Anti-Christ that was to come but then went on to say that other antichrists have already come before him. The reason why the title of Anti-Christ does not appear throughout the rest of scripture is because he also goes by other titles; all of which are tied to the same person of the same character and who will perform specific actions.

The orange soda analogy fails in that it contradicts itself by claiming that orange soda has already arrived while saying that it is one its way. Both cannot be true and therefore is not able to represent what John has said in regards to the Anti-Christ. He was not contradicting the prophecies foretelling the coming Anti-Christ when he was warning the Church that other antichrists preceding the one to come had already come into the world, but there are things about the Anti-Christ to come that do set him apart from those who have come before him.

Interesting, I've only replaced one word. If it's about orange soda, you are in agreement that the coming orange soda that you heard about is the same one you are seeing now. But when it is the antichrist, you believe the antichrist they heard is coming, is not the same as the antichrists that were then present. Clearly contradicting interpretations based on eschatological bias, and not of objective, logical thinking.

A.) "you have heard orange soda is coming"
"you have heard antichrist is coming

B.) "now there are orange sodas in every store"
"now there are many antichrists"

B fulfills A, there is no way around that. Your unbiased answer to the orange soda showed this, which is different than the eschatologically biased antichrist answer.
 
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Scripture is very clear that the old obsolete covenant had not yet vanished away (hebrews 8:13).


@sovereigngrace put it very nicely:

"The writer here is not in any way suggesting that the Old Covenant continues to be valid. The whole book of Hebrews is teaching the opposite. He is simply explaining how the Old has been removed and replaced with the New. He is saying that whilst it continues to be active in the lives of Jewish unbelievers (in his day) with the continuation of visible ordinances in the temple. It has decayed and has waxed old and will very soon (AD 70) be finally and eternally removed.

Whilst the Cross ushered in the new covenant, and the removal of the old covenant, many of the outward manifestations of the old covenant still remained. God had vowed to remove every last vestige of the old. This He did. He graciously gave them 40 years to repent (AD 30-AD 70). Not long after this epistle was written, the temple with its now-rejected sacrifices was finally destroyed. With the destruction of the temple, the temple sacrifices vanished forever."




It has been made impossible to follow old covenant for the last 2,000 years as the temple was removed in 70AD.




Yet they still try to follow what they can of the Old Covenant (i.e. circumcision, their dietary and cleanliness laws, and the observances of as many of the Jewish feasts as they can to whatever extent they can) but they do these things believing that they will gain favor with God, just as they persisted in offering up sin and trespass offerings while the Temple was still standing as they kept their trust in an inferior covenant that was no longer rather than place their trust in the New Covenant established in Christ.

If we were to see another Temple built, the Old Covenant would remain just as obsolete and just as vanished away as it has been because their persistence in the following of the Old Covenant is done in vain, regardless of whether or not all the means to keep the Old Covenant are in place or not.



So then, if as you say, "it will not matter where we worship Him", you are in agreement that we will not be required to go Jerusalem once a year to partake in the feast of tabernacles?


It does not matter now, and overall, it will not even matter then, but as to why our Lord will require the survivors of the earth to go up to Jerusalem to observe the Feast of Tabernacles is unclear apart from the insight that the prophet Zechariah gives us, but even then, far less is still going to be required of the people of the earth in that day then, then was ever required of them under the Old Covenant.


Interesting you did not address that the Jerusalem with living waters flowing from it in zechariah 14 is the same as the Jerusalem in revelation 22 with living waters flowing from it. Are you then in agreement?



That is because it wasn't relevant to what I was responding to, and no, the living waters do not pertain to the same era in time. The waters flowing out of the Temple pertain to a time to yet take place in this present world, whereas the waters of which Revelation 22 speaks pertains to the earth that is yet to come.


If the living waters is the Spirit, as attested by NT scripture (John 7:38-39), then the movement of the living waters to the east and west seas, represents the movement of the Spirit.


The living waters are only flowing in two different directions to two different geographical locations. If they are supposed to represent the movement of the Holy Spirit, that would depict Him as being limited in His movement, which is not the Holy Spirit I know and read about in scripture.


all the feasts are allegorical of Christ. Christ fulfilled them. Thus we no longer need to worship according to the feasts as they were only a shadow (colossians 2:16-17).


That still doesn't answer the question about the Feast of Tabernacles; the observance of which the prophet Zechariah says will one day be demanded of all the inhabitants of the earth. If this is not supposed to be taken literally as you insist it shouldn't, it still would have to symbolize an observance that is required of everyone. What would that be?


NT scripture directly contradicts your literal interpretation of the end of zechariah 14.


Only to those who have not taken time to search out why Christ would require all people to observe the Feast of Tabernacles when He returns.


Don't take things out of context. I stated the interpretation of the rain falling on only those who go up worship at the feast of tabernacles is my interpretation based on the previous 4 points, not zechariah as a whole, for as I posted to your 4 other points, we can find multiple NT scriptures that corroborate the fulfillment of zechariah 14.


That does not make any sense because Zechariah says that those who refuse to go up to Jerusalem to observe the Feast of Tabernacles will not receive any rain and if this is supposed to be the Holy Spirit, why would they care since they never had the Holy Spirit to begin with? In order for the punishment against them for refusing present themselves before the Lord during the Feast of Tabernacles to be effective, the rain withheld from them has to be something they already had and from which they benefited and which is then taken away from them as a consequence of their rebellion.


I agree the coming is physical. However, why would it be different than the times God came down from heaven in the OT?


It is different in the sense that when Christ does return, He is returning to stay and reign.


In the context of the resurrection. The spirit was given as a guarantee of the resurrection.


The Holy Spirit is given as a guarantee of our salvation which also includes the bodily resurrection of those who have died in Christ unto everlasting life and the changing of the corruptible bodies of those who are alive into bodies incorruptible and free from death.


So it seems based on option 2, you believe people can still sin in the new heavens and new earth. Interesting......


Sin, as a condition of our being will not be present within us, but that does not mean that men will be devoid of a free will anymore than Lucifer and his angels were, but any who do choose evil will suffer immediate consequences which will involve eventually succumbing to the second death which ends with them being cast into the Lake of Fire. Lucifer and his angels did not possess a sinful nature within themselves but they still transgressed and suffered immediate consequences for their actions with more still to come and from which they are doing everything they can to escape. Adam and Eve did were not created with a sinful nature. They were created pure and innocent and yet they still transgressed against God by eating from a certain tree that they were commanded not to.

You seem to think that in order for all things to be perfect that God has to devoid everyone of free-choice, but God has always and will always want a meaningful relationship with His creation which requires the ability of His creation to be able choose between fellowship with God or enmity with Him. And those who choose to rebel against their Maker will not have access to the tree of life and therefore will eventually succumb to the second death.


Death is already no more for those who are in Christ.


Our bodies still die. Therefore, we still are subject to death. The only death that we are not subject to is the second death. But the day is coming when we will no longer be subject to the first death either.


Read through the book of acts, especially chapters 1-8


I have read through the book of Acts, including the chapters you have cited and have found nothing taking place, including the persecutions that took place, that reflect the events written in Revelation chapter 12 which are very specific.


Revelation 12 is the symbolic vision as to what occurred at the cross.


Revelation 12 foretells events after the cross, resurrection, and ascension of our Lord.


So then you agree or disagree with the words of Jesus, where he specifically states that satan was cast out when He was lifted up?


Jesus said that Satan will be cast out, not that he was cast out. It is just that the death and resurrection of our Lord has made it a sure thing.


For the 4th or 5th time now, what does this have to do with the LXX of Daniel 11:31 fitting nicely with the hebrew of Daniel 8?


For the 4th or 5th time, since you appeared to be claiming that the book of Daniel was written in Aramaic before it was written in Hebrew, I pointed out a passage in scripture that showed that claim to be false. It was written in Hebrew before it was written in any other language and because the Hebrew is the original language in which all the OT scriptures were written, it is the Hebrew against which the accuracy of translation must be tested, not the other way around.


This verse does not mention the AOD, so I don't know what you are talking about.


You don't know what I am talking about because you do not know all the titles throughout scripture to which the man of sin is tied.


So you believe Jesus will return from heaven riding on a horse, with a literal sword coming out of his mouth? You don't believe the sword is symbolic.


If you knew what the sword is called that precedes from His mouth, your mind might be dispelled of the clownish imagery that plague it due to your misunderstanding of what the scripture is saying.


Right, so you can't actually post a verse that states Christ physically reigns on earth for 1,000 years.


Revelation 20:4: Th saints live and reign with Christ for a thousand years. We will not reign without Him on the earth.


Incorrect, Paul does not say we are "like" the temple, Paul states we "are" the temple.
Paul clearly quotes Ezekiel when referring to the body of Christ as the temple and not a literal temple building.

2 corinthians 6:16 What agreement has the temple of God with idols? For we are the temple of the living God; as God said, “I will make my dwelling among them and walk among them, and I will be their God, and they shall be my people.

You are using classing "whataboutism", which deflects the argument from you. You may disagree with verse I posted, and I disagree with your counter argument, but you should at least should be able to post a counter verse that supports a literal future earthly temple building. So far you haven't.

This is evident as Paul refers to the body of Christ as the temple multiple times (ephesians 2:20-22, 1 corinthians 3:16).


Paul never once mentions a future earthly physical temple building.



There are two ways that God can dwell among His people. He dwells in them through the Holy Spirit, or with them in person. He has walked among us and dwelt with us before in person. He wil do so again. We serve as His figurative dwelling place, but His dwelling place will take on a literal manifestation when He returns. The Temple in Ezekiel's vision is not portrayed as a symbolic vision. The New Testament makes no direct comment on it. If the NT did, it would give an explanation about what everything about the Temple vision represented. It does not.


"literal format" contradicts scripture. For God himself stated he would speak to the prophets of Israel in visions and dreams and riddles, and NOT like how he spoke clearly with moses.


Literal format does not contradict scripture whenever the scripture presents itself in a literal format, which happens to be a majority of the time.
 
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