prodromos

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In modern Greek. :)

My Bible says Ἰάκωβος. The ending survives in languages like German (Jacobus).
Not in modern Greek. I just posted the shortened form as the extra syllable would have made no sense to some people. My own name, John, is quite some distance removed from the Hebrew or Greek that it is derived from.
 
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hedrick

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In the Greek Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Old Testament, Joshua is written as Ιησούς which is exactly the same as how Jesus is written in the Greek New Testament. Greek Christians have always pronounced them the same.

English Bibles, however have the Old Testament translated from the Masoretic Hebrew text and the New Testament translated from the Greek texts which has resulted in the same name being Joshua in the OT and Jesus in the NT.
Sort of. In Luke 3:27, Acts 7:45 and Heb 4:8 the name in the original Greek is exactly the same as for Jesus. English Bibles, however, translate it as Joshua when it's anyone else, and Jesus for Jesus, even though they're the same in the original.
 
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Not David

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Sort of. In Luke 3:27, Acts 7:45 and Heb 4:8 the name in the original Greek is exactly the same as for Jesus. English Bibles, however, translate it as Joshua when it's anyone else, and Jesus for Jesus, even though they're the same in the original.
The same happens in Spanish. Jesus is Jesús while Joshua is Josué.
 
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prodromos

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Sort of. In Luke 3:27, Acts 7:45 and Heb 4:8 the name in the original Greek is exactly the same as for Jesus. English Bibles, however, translate it as Joshua when it's anyone else, and Jesus for Jesus, even though they're the same in the original.
:)
Thanks, I'd forgotten that.
 
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dzheremi

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In Arabic, it's Yasou' (يسوع) for Jesus and Yashou' (يشوع) for Joshua. The latter is more directly from the Hebrew (and occasionally you'll find monks and such with this name), while the former is the Arabic cognate for the Hebrew. (cf. Hebrew Shalom, Arabic Salam; Hebrew Rosh, Arabic Ra'is, etc.) I'm not sure that classical Syriac distinguishes between them; to the extent that I could find looking through the Peshitta online, it appears to be Yashou' (ܝܫܘܥ) for both, but I know that the pronunciation is 'Isho in the hymns I've heard, e.g. --


Maran Isho Malka Zghida (hymn from the Chaldean Catholic mass) "Christ the Lord is the Adored King"

It seems to me that if people really want to get their name-worshipping on, they should be using something akin to this ('Isho), rather than the Hebrew. During Christ's own time, the language of the people (and indeed Christ's own language) was not Hebrew, but Aramaic (if I recall correctly, the switch from Hebrew to Aramaic was made circa 6th century BC). Using Hebrew is just fetishizing Jewishness, which makes no sense to do if you yourself are not Jewish.
 
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Barney2.0

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In Arabic, it's Yasou' (يسوع) for Jesus and Yashou' (يشوع) for Joshua. The latter is more directly from the Hebrew (and occasionally you'll find monks and such with this name), while the former is the Arabic cognate for the Hebrew. (cf. Hebrew Shalom, Arabic Salam; Hebrew Rosh, Arabic Ra'is, etc.) I'm not sure that classical Syriac distinguishes between them; to the extent that I could find looking through the Peshitta online, it appears to be Yashou' (ܝܫܘܥ) for both, but I know that the pronunciation is 'Isho in the hymns I've heard, e.g. --


Maran Isho Malka Zghida (hymn from the Chaldean Catholic mass) "Christ the Lord is the Adored King"

It seems to me that if people really want to get their name-worshipping on, they should be using something akin to this ('Isho), rather than the Hebrew. During Christ's own time, the language of the people (and indeed Christ's own language) was not Hebrew, but Aramaic (if I recall correctly, the switch from Hebrew to Aramaic was made circa 6th century BC). Using Hebrew is just fetishizing Jewishness, which makes no sense to do if you yourself are not Jewish.
The more accurate Arabic term for Joshua is يوشع, which exists in Islamic sources and it is most probably the root word for the Arabic يسوع, strangely Islamic source such as the Quran render the name of Christ as عيسى for some odd reason.
 
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Knee V

It's phonetic.
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Convention is what it is, and I am fine with name translations being technically inconsistent in order to have a small degree of comfort in the familiar. I understand that "Jesus" and "Joshua" are the same name, but I will continue using them as separate names, and I'll sleep just fine tonight.
 
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dzheremi

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The more accurate Arabic term for Joshua is يوشع

Is it? I only know the Arabic Bible through the SVD (since that's what the Coptic Orthodox Church uses), which gives it as يشوع as I wrote (see here, for instance). Apologies to the thread in general if this is not the case.

I've heard يوشع before (there's an Islamic apologist who is famous in the English speaking world who has this name), but I guess I sort of assumed that this was probably another case of Muslims having a different name for their versions of Biblical names, like يحيى instead of يوحنا.

which exists in Islamic sources and it is most probably the root word for the Arabic يسوع

How?

strangely Islamic source such as the Quran render the name of Christ as عيسى for some odd reason.

The only source that I have that goes into the Islamic name in particular is Jefferey (1938), and while there's nothing definitive, he does point out that earlier Mingana (Syriac Influence on the Style of the Kur'an, 1927) had pointed to the existence of a Syriac monastery in southern Syria which bore the name 'Isaniya, which was known as early as 571 AD. Maybe Muhammad was just such an amazing prophet that he happened to know about such things when he was one year old, but...I doubt it. As far as I know, there's only one prophet who speaks from the cradle in Islam, and it isn't Muhammad. :p
 
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In the Greek Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Old Testament, Joshua is written as Ιησούς which is exactly the same as how Jesus is written in the Greek New Testament. Greek Christians have always pronounced them the same.

English Bibles, however have the Old Testament translated from the Masoretic Hebrew text and the New Testament translated from the Greek texts which has resulted in the same name being Joshua in the OT and Jesus in the NT.

Like the Eastern Orthodox scholar Dr. Eric Jobe, I do like the Masoretic and Hebraic versions of the OT (I really wish we had a surviving copy of Origen’s Hexapla; the fact that St. Jerome had one and we do not makes me greatly value his original Vulgate), but this post underscores the often overlooked importance of teaching all Christians about the Septuagint and ensuring a familiarity exists with its unique aspects, many of which do carry an important doctrinal message.
 
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HopeInJesusOnly

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then prove why someone is obligated to use the name Jesus..

I don't need to prove it, my bible tells me so. And it's the name I grew up with.

You are free to disagree. And I'd actually prefer not to argue. But it is sad that we are even debating this on a Christian site.
We're all communicating in English right now, and Jesus is His name in English.

What he said.
 
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S.O.J.I.A.

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We're all communicating in English right now, and Jesus is His name in English.

and If I call Him Yahweh(which is what His name was in the original language the bible was written in), how is this wrong?
 
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S.O.J.I.A.

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I don't need to prove it, my bible tells me so. And it's the name I grew up with.
and the person who grew up calling Him Yahweh is wrong for calling Him Yahweh?

and yo'bible was written in Hebrew and greek, where there were no J's. so no, your bible does not tell you so.
 
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Not David

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and the person who grew up calling Him Yahweh is wrong for calling Him Yahweh?

and yo'bible was written in Hebrew and greek, where there were no J's. so no, your bible does not tell you so.
I grew up calling Jesus Christ "Jesucristo" yet you don't see me using it.
 
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