Did God Order Massacres in the Old Testament? [ELCA/ELCIC forum]

n2thelight said:

What other reason would He have to tell them to utterly destroy women and children?I'LL WAIT!!!

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There is the supernatural view, it involves how His Heavenly kingdom interacts on this Earth in order to save mankind from death.

It would be similar to the reason Noah's flood occurred but on a much smaller scale. In His omniscience He foresaw that unless these populations weren't executed then we wouldn't have Judaism or Christianity as we know it today.

It's hard to imagine this world as being any worse as it is now, but no. Things could be a lot worse. Look at one particular culture whose historical civilizations have been furthest from geographical location of the middle east. Where things like if you've been convicted of a crime, not only do you go to prison but you're also put on a live organ donor list. Could you imagine all major powers agreeing on this?

tampasteve said:

I don't think the question really revolves around the text, but rather how to interpret it. So, we can read all of the text, and most of us probably have, but still question the meaning and how to live it today.

Welcome back! It is always nice to have more people around!

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The answer to your question is, Yes God did order the Israelites to go in and destroy all life. But I think your real question is Why!

God had promised this land to Abraham and his descendants many years prior to this order. God keeps His promises. Why destroy the Cananites? If you read through the scriptures you will find that God's period of grace for these people had run out. In His eyes they were already dead. God can see into their future and what He saw was hardened unbelief and increased sin.

Our period of God's grace can run out too, just as Pharaoh's had. Moses stood in front of Pharaoh and told him God's will but Pharaoh denied God. He said who is this God that I should obey Him.

Let me know if that answered your questions.

Sérgio Junior said:

A few weeks ago I was talking to a Lutheran friend (he defines himself as a "liberal", I also consider myself a "liberal") about the "killings" that are described in the OT, he also discussed these difficult passages with his Pastor, and he said me that your pastor said that God didn't command any "Massacre" and that OT reports about "Genocide" are only part of Israeli history and how they saw and understood God at that time. I would like to know what the members of this forum who are part of the ELCA think about these so-called "massacres" in OT, but I also accept the opinion of other mainline and "liberal" Christians.

Thoughts?

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Which Scripture specifically, for an example, in particular? Sometimes, men obeyed Yahweh. Often they did not (and do not). In Scripture, from what is written.

n2thelight said:

The Hebrew reads from bottom to top

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ooops...

How do you read Hebrew - Answers
How do you read Hebrew - Answers
In order to read Hebrew: 1). You look at the letters on the printed page in sequence, moving from right to left along the line, and then from top to bottom on the page.

The conquests of the Canaanites depicted in the book of Joshua cannot be reconciled with known archaeology and probably served as foundation myths for the people of Israel.

Rubiks said:

The conquests of the Canaanites depicted in the book of Joshua cannot be reconciled with known archaeology and probably served as foundation myths for the people of Israel.

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Not if Yahuweh told the truth, and He is not a man that He could lie.

tampasteve said:

Please remember this is the ELCA sub-forum.

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Okay, thanks - I just only saw the post I was replying to, and did not notice. But then also, if I may ask anyone ELCA,
does anyone in ELCA believe the slaughters happened as written in Scripture, in Torah, in the Prophets, in the Psalms , (and maybe referred to in the New Testament?) ?

Shalom!