could we clarify, circumcision was an "Abrahamic Law" given to Abraham... and continued by his descendants including not only Moses but all of Israel?
The "Books of Moses" (Pentateuch, Torah) which he is credited with authoring detail human history all the way back, so including much ancient history before Moses' time
His books he wrote detail a series of Laws which "stack" on top of each other, including Laws given by God to Noah, Abraham & Moses
Think you could clarify, that the Mosaic Books describe "Noachide Law", "Abrahamic Law", "Mosaic Law" ?
The word 'law' really does not appear in the OT until the book of Exodus.
If I remember correctly, the 'law', is mentioned just once in reference to Abraham in the book of Genesis. That single occurrence of the word 'law' in Genesis could also be a later interpolation in the text.
Paul seems to identify 'the law' solely with Moses and the book of Exodus.
Galatians 3:16-17
Now the promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. He does not say, “And to seeds,” as referring to many, but rather to one, “And to your seed,” that is, Christ. What I am saying is this:
the Law, which came four hundred and thirty years later, does not invalidate a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to nullify the promise.
Further, Paul's usage of that term 'the law' is strongly associated with the written law of Moses.
Romans 2:27
And he who is physically uncircumcised, if he keeps the Law, will he not judge you who though having
the letter of the Law and circumcision are a transgressor of the Law?
Romans 7:6
But now we have been released from the Law, having died to that by which we were bound, so that we serve in newness of the Spirit
and not in oldness of the letter.
The commandment given to Abraham concerning circumcision was not regarded by Paul as the written law, the letter of the law.
