Well, this was interesting and perhaps a fitting closure to this thread:
I had sent an email very similar to my original post here to Dr. Frank Turek, the high-profile apologist who has repeatedly asserted that atheists must “steal from God” to make moral claims because they have no legitimate foundation for such claims. Without such a foundation, they are simply voicing personal opinions.
Today, Turek used my email as the basis for his podcast. He began by saying that he “disagreed with almost everything” I had to say (get in line behind my wife, pal). I was all ears, interested to hear how a high-profile apologist and debater might shred my arguments.
I was dismayed. Not because Turek shredded my arguments but because of the shallowness of his responses.
In fact, he really just used the first paragraph of my email as a launching pad for the same spiel he gives on every college campus. There was no real engagement at all with what I had said. Shortly into the podcast, we were off on tangents like Christopher Hitchens.
This is a standard tactic in apologetics. It’s why William Lane Craig insists on going first in every debate. Apologists want to control the discussion so they aren’t caught off-guard and can give essentially the same spiel every time.
I had said that because an atheist doesn’t accept the existence of God, an atheist is simply going to say that a believer has moved “opinion” up one level. A believer is of the “opinion” God exists, but an atheist doesn’t share this opinion. The believer thus is appealing to an authority whose existence the atheist doesn’t recognize and then using this authority’s decrees as the foundation of his morality.
“NO, NO, NO!” Turek said. The appeal isn’t to God’s authority but to God’s goodness. God is by nature, by definition, good.
Does that make sense to you? How can anyone appeal to God’s goodness unless he or she acknowledges that God exists – which the atheist doesn’t? The atheist believes it’s merely the believer’s opinion that God exists and, secondarily, that God is good.
Turek’s argument seems to me circular, like people who urge the Bible is true because it says it’s true. God’s goodness as a basis for morality requires one to accept the premise that God exists.
The moral argument, Turek said, is “ontological,” not “epistemological”? Well, OK, I’d agree. The issue for an atheist is the ontological one as to whether there actually is a God whose goodness can serve as the foundation of morality. The atheist has concluded “No, there isn’t.”
It seems to me that what Turek is relying on is the so-called "moral argument" for God's existence. God's goodness is a proof of his existence. See Moral Arguments for the Existence of God (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy).
But "It seems clear that no version of the moral argument constitutes a 'proof' of God’s existence. Each version contains premises that many reasonable thinkers reject." (Same source.) Our atheist has considered the moral argument and found it unconvincing.
“BUT THERE ARE LOTS OF OTHER ARGUMENTS FOR THE EXISTENCE OF GOD BESIDES MORALITY,” Turek said. Certainly there are good arguments – we’ll assume the atheist has heard them too and found them unconvincing. The issue, however, isn’t the existence of God. The issue is whether an atheist can have a legitimate foundation for moral claims without God or must “steal” from a God in whom the atheist doesn’t believe.
I suggested in my original post several such bases that it seems to me an atheist might assert:
(1) Evolution, for entirely evolutionary purposes, has hard-wired into humans certain beliefs (e.g., an abhorrence of murder and rape) that are independent of individual opinions; those who resort to murder and rape are abnormal and not tolerated.
(2) A culture may, for purposes of maintaining order and harmony, reach a large majority consensus regarding certain behaviors. This consensus becomes a standard independent of individual opinions – those who violate the standard are not tolerated.
(3) Similar to (2), the sages of a culture may, through philosophical reflection and analysis, recognize a cluster of behaviors that promote individual and collective order, harmony and well-being; this becomes the morality of the culture and those who violate it are not tolerated.
It seems to me that (1)-(3), individually and collectively, provide objective bases for moral claims by those who don’t recognize the existence of God.
If one is going to define morality as requiring a “fixed standard that transcends human beliefs and opinions,” then of course one is going to need something like a God. But again, this is circular reasoning. Why must morality be defined in this way? What is inadequate about (1)-(3) as a foundation for morality?
“BUT A LIFE WITHOUT GOD HAS NO PURPOSE!” Turek said. Well, OK, say it has no ultimate purpose. It has only such purpose as an individual or a society gives it. What does this have to do with whether an atheist or an atheistic society can legitimately make moral claims?
It just seems to me that Turek’s arguments rely on circular reasoning and question-begging. If you define morality in such a way that it requires an acceptance of God and a fixed, transcendent standard that only something like a God can satisfy, if you define it in such a way that it serves as a proof of God's existence – well, duh, then you’re going to win the argument.
But if the question is simply the neutral one “Can moral claims legitimately be something more than personal opinion, can they have an independent objective foundation, without reference to a fixed transcendent standard that requires a God?” – well, it seems to me that the answer is “Yes, they can.”
I had sent an email very similar to my original post here to Dr. Frank Turek, the high-profile apologist who has repeatedly asserted that atheists must “steal from God” to make moral claims because they have no legitimate foundation for such claims. Without such a foundation, they are simply voicing personal opinions.
Today, Turek used my email as the basis for his podcast. He began by saying that he “disagreed with almost everything” I had to say (get in line behind my wife, pal). I was all ears, interested to hear how a high-profile apologist and debater might shred my arguments.
I was dismayed. Not because Turek shredded my arguments but because of the shallowness of his responses.
In fact, he really just used the first paragraph of my email as a launching pad for the same spiel he gives on every college campus. There was no real engagement at all with what I had said. Shortly into the podcast, we were off on tangents like Christopher Hitchens.
This is a standard tactic in apologetics. It’s why William Lane Craig insists on going first in every debate. Apologists want to control the discussion so they aren’t caught off-guard and can give essentially the same spiel every time.
I had said that because an atheist doesn’t accept the existence of God, an atheist is simply going to say that a believer has moved “opinion” up one level. A believer is of the “opinion” God exists, but an atheist doesn’t share this opinion. The believer thus is appealing to an authority whose existence the atheist doesn’t recognize and then using this authority’s decrees as the foundation of his morality.
“NO, NO, NO!” Turek said. The appeal isn’t to God’s authority but to God’s goodness. God is by nature, by definition, good.
Does that make sense to you? How can anyone appeal to God’s goodness unless he or she acknowledges that God exists – which the atheist doesn’t? The atheist believes it’s merely the believer’s opinion that God exists and, secondarily, that God is good.
Turek’s argument seems to me circular, like people who urge the Bible is true because it says it’s true. God’s goodness as a basis for morality requires one to accept the premise that God exists.
The moral argument, Turek said, is “ontological,” not “epistemological”? Well, OK, I’d agree. The issue for an atheist is the ontological one as to whether there actually is a God whose goodness can serve as the foundation of morality. The atheist has concluded “No, there isn’t.”
It seems to me that what Turek is relying on is the so-called "moral argument" for God's existence. God's goodness is a proof of his existence. See Moral Arguments for the Existence of God (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy).
But "It seems clear that no version of the moral argument constitutes a 'proof' of God’s existence. Each version contains premises that many reasonable thinkers reject." (Same source.) Our atheist has considered the moral argument and found it unconvincing.
“BUT THERE ARE LOTS OF OTHER ARGUMENTS FOR THE EXISTENCE OF GOD BESIDES MORALITY,” Turek said. Certainly there are good arguments – we’ll assume the atheist has heard them too and found them unconvincing. The issue, however, isn’t the existence of God. The issue is whether an atheist can have a legitimate foundation for moral claims without God or must “steal” from a God in whom the atheist doesn’t believe.
I suggested in my original post several such bases that it seems to me an atheist might assert:
(1) Evolution, for entirely evolutionary purposes, has hard-wired into humans certain beliefs (e.g., an abhorrence of murder and rape) that are independent of individual opinions; those who resort to murder and rape are abnormal and not tolerated.
(2) A culture may, for purposes of maintaining order and harmony, reach a large majority consensus regarding certain behaviors. This consensus becomes a standard independent of individual opinions – those who violate the standard are not tolerated.
(3) Similar to (2), the sages of a culture may, through philosophical reflection and analysis, recognize a cluster of behaviors that promote individual and collective order, harmony and well-being; this becomes the morality of the culture and those who violate it are not tolerated.
It seems to me that (1)-(3), individually and collectively, provide objective bases for moral claims by those who don’t recognize the existence of God.
If one is going to define morality as requiring a “fixed standard that transcends human beliefs and opinions,” then of course one is going to need something like a God. But again, this is circular reasoning. Why must morality be defined in this way? What is inadequate about (1)-(3) as a foundation for morality?
“BUT A LIFE WITHOUT GOD HAS NO PURPOSE!” Turek said. Well, OK, say it has no ultimate purpose. It has only such purpose as an individual or a society gives it. What does this have to do with whether an atheist or an atheistic society can legitimately make moral claims?
It just seems to me that Turek’s arguments rely on circular reasoning and question-begging. If you define morality in such a way that it requires an acceptance of God and a fixed, transcendent standard that only something like a God can satisfy, if you define it in such a way that it serves as a proof of God's existence – well, duh, then you’re going to win the argument.
But if the question is simply the neutral one “Can moral claims legitimately be something more than personal opinion, can they have an independent objective foundation, without reference to a fixed transcendent standard that requires a God?” – well, it seems to me that the answer is “Yes, they can.”
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