A study of Matthew 5:17-20

DamianWarS

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Matthew 5:17-20 ESV said:
Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished. Therefore whoever relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. For I tell you, unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven.

Jesus says "I have not come to abolish [Law or the Prophets] but to fulfill them." Immediately abolish is contrasted with fulfill.

As we read the passage abolish is paralleled with the law passing away and then again in with relaxing the law and finally, we have the consequence. These are grouped together as follows:
  • Abolish
  • law passing away
  • relaxes one of the least
  • will never enter the kingdom of heaven
so it's agreed we are not looking for those things. But Jesus didn't come to do these things he came to fulfill so let's focus on what Jesus came to do, not what he didn't come to do. So the question is has Jesus fulfilled the law and if the law is not abolished but fulfilled what is the net difference?
 

Guojing

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This passage is often used by Christians to insist that the "moral law" is still with us today.

But if you read it carefully, Jesus was actually proposing 2 different ways in which the law can be "passed" away.

1)Till heaven and earth pass away
2)Till all be fulfilled

The first has obviously not happened. But Jesus on earth has fulfilled all the law on our behalf, so the second condition has taken place.
 
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DamianWarS

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This passage is often used by Christians to insist that the "moral law" is still with us today.

But if you read it carefully, Jesus was actually proposing 2 different ways in which the law can be "passed" away.

1)Till heaven and earth pass away
2)Till all be fulfilled

The first has obviously not happened. But Jesus on earth has fulfilled all the law on our behalf, so the second condition has taken place.
so what's the difference?
on one hand, there is an abolished law, on the other, there is a fulfilled law. What about these are different? what about them are the same?
 
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joshua 1 9

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So the question is has Jesus fulfilled the law and if the law is not abolished but fulfilled what is the net difference?
Paul explains this in Galatians chapter 5: "Those who belong to Christ Jesus have crucified the flesh with its passions and desires." Paul tells us we are free from the works of the flesh when we live according to the Spirit. If we sow to the flesh we reap destruction. If we sow to the Spirit then we reap eternal life.
 
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ewq1938

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This passage is often used by Christians to insist that the "moral law" is still with us today.

But if you read it carefully, Jesus was actually proposing 2 different ways in which the law can be "passed" away.

1)Till heaven and earth pass away
2)Till all be fulfilled

The first has obviously not happened.

It did happen. Earth and Heaven passing is simply Earth and Heaven ages...periods of time. Those did pass away at the cross and a new age for Earth and Heaven began. The law changed at the cross, so we know that "heaven and earth pass away" did happen. It is simply misunderstood as to what "heaven and earth pass away" means.

Heb 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
 
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Guojing

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so what's the difference?
on one hand, there is an abolished law, on the other, there is a fulfilled law. What about these are different? what about them are the same?

Since Jesus fulfilled all the law, the law of moses have passed for everyone who believes in his death burial and resurrection.

So if you connect this to Paul's explanation of the divine exchange in Romans 5:12-19, esp v13, I can say that the Law has indeed passed for Christians who believe in Jesus's finished work by faith. Thus, sin can no longer be imputed to us.

Thus, as far as the vertical relationship between God and Christians is concerned, sin is no longer an issue between God and us. This allows us to understand better what Paul meant when he talked about the message of reconciliation, in 2 Cor 5 (NLT)

18 And all of this is a gift from God, who brought us back to himself through Christ. And God has given us this task of reconciling people to him. 19 For God was in Christ, reconciling the world to himself, no longer counting people’s sins against them. And he gave us this wonderful message of reconciliation. 20 So we are Christ’s ambassadors; God is making his appeal through us. We speak for Christ when we plead, “Come back to God!” 21 For God made Christ, who never sinned, to be the offering for our sin,[d] so that we could be made right with God through Christ.
 
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Dave-W

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so what's the difference?
on one hand, there is an abolished law, on the other, there is a fulfilled law. What about these are different? what about them are the same?
Say there is Law on the books that you have to pay an income tax of 30%. So you pay it this year. You have fulfilled it. But you still need to pay it next year and the year after that and the year after that. So does your neighbor and the guy down the street. The law is fulfilled by you paying it but it is still there.

But if the law is abolished; by new legislation or the courts throwing it out; then none of you have to pay that tax again. EVER.

He did not abolish the Law.
 
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DamianWarS

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Say there is Law on the books that you have to pay an income tax of 30%. So you pay it this year. You have fulfilled it. But you still need to pay it next year and the year after that and the year after that. So does your neighbor and the guy down the street. The law is fulfilled by you paying it but it is still there.

But if the law is abolished; by new legislation or the courts throwing it out; then none of you have to pay that tax again. EVER.

He did not abolish the Law.
What if I change your example to school. One hand I drop out, the other, I graduate. The differences is one is toss away and looked at as a waste, the other is valued and the diploma hangs on the wall. The similarities are I'm not going back to school.

Your example feels very much works focused such as if I do the right things then I'm good for the rest of the year. I don't think that's how it works.
 
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DamianWarS

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Paul explains this in Galatians chapter 5: "Those who belong to Christ Jesus have crucified the flesh with its passions and desires." Paul tells us we are free from the works of the flesh when we live according to the Spirit. If we sow to the flesh we reap destruction. If we sow to the Spirit then we reap eternal life.
Can you unpack this more? How does it relate to the law or Jesus fulfilling it?
 
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Dave-W

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Your example feels very much works focused such as if I do the right things then I'm good for the rest of the year. I don't think that's how it works.
It may “feel” that way to you, but I submit that is a product of antinomian teaching.

IT actually is NOT works based. (Works as in trying to be or stay saved). It is OBEDIENCE based as in that is how we are supposed to walk AFTER we are saved.
 
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joshua 1 9

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Can you unpack this more? How does it relate to the law or Jesus fulfilling it?
Jesus lived His life as an example for us to follow. The law is powerless to set us free from Sin. The "righteous requirement of the law might be fully met in us, who do not live according to the flesh but according to the Spirit". (Romans8:4) Paul is talking about how we are to live right or righteous before God. This begins with being Just or Justified before God. God is a God of absolute Justice. He impressed that upon me many times.

David talks about being good and how the law is our teacher to show us how we are to live. Paul said: "10As it is written: “There is no one righteous, not even one." David wrote: "3All have turned away, they have together become corrupt; there is no one who does good, not even one" (Psalm 14:2)

I wanted to know why Paul changed the word "good" to the word "righteous" or to be right before God. The next thing I knew I was taken up to Heaven to have a conversation with Paul. I was given something like 12 seconds of Paul's time. He talked about what David wrote, talked about what he wrote. Then he asked me why I was not living right before God. I say "talk" but what he does is to give me a packet of information which I have really only begun to process. Even now I am still trying to understand the information that he gave me.

So your word: "unpack" is right. I have to unpack the information that he gave me.
 
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DamianWarS

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It may “feel” that way to you, but I submit that is a product of antinomian teaching.

IT actually is NOT works based. (Works as in trying to be or stay saved). It is OBEDIENCE based as in that is how we are supposed to walk AFTER we are saved.
You're going to have to unpack your analogy because your example is saying you pay for something once, then you're good for a year then have to pay it back again. Remind me why this isn't just another sacrifice system? Hebrews 10 tells us "...in these sacrifices there is a reminder of sins every year..." that sounds a lot like what you just said. So how is it different?

When you say Jesus fulfills means "obey" how does this relate to the sacrificial law? He "fulfilled" it and the result is perfect atonement so we do longer need to repeat it. I assume you agree with this, so why is it this part of fulfilled law mean our sacrifice is through Christ not the law but the other parts of fulfilled law mean they are still through the law?
 
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Mat 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

G2647
καταλύω
kataluō
Thayer Definition:
1) to dissolve, disunite
1a) (what has been joined together), to destroy, demolish
1b) metaphorically to overthrow, i.e. render vain, deprive of success, bring to naught
1b1) to subvert, overthrow
1b1a) of institutions, forms of government, laws, etc., to deprive of force, annul, abrogate, discard
1c) of travellers, to halt on a journey, to put up, lodge (the figurative expression originating in the circumstance that, to put up for the night, the straps and packs of the beasts of burden are unbound and taken off; or, more correctly from the fact that the traveller’s garments, tied up when he is on the journey, are unloosed at it end)
Part of Speech: verb
A Related Word by Thayer’s/Strong’s Number: from G2596 and G3089
Citing in TDNT: 4:338, 543

Naturally Christ did not come to destroy the law but he did come to fulfill it:



Mat 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.


G4137
πληρόω
plēroō
Thayer Definition:
1) to make full, to fill up, i.e. to fill to the full
1a) to cause to abound, to furnish or supply liberally
1a1) I abound, I am liberally supplied
2) to render full, i.e. to complete
2a) to fill to the top: so that nothing shall be wanting to full measure, fill to the brim
2b) to consummate: a number
2b1) to make complete in every particular, to render perfect
2b2) to carry through to the end, to accomplish, carry out, (some undertaking)
2c) to carry into effect, bring to realisation, realise
2c1) of matters of duty: to perform, execute
2c2) of sayings, promises, prophecies, to bring to pass, ratify, accomplish
2c3) to fulfil, i.e. to cause God’s will (as made known in the law) to be obeyed as it should be, and God’s promises (given through the prophets) to receive fulfilment
Part of Speech: verb
A Related Word by Thayer’s/Strong’s Number: from G4134
Citing in TDNT: 6:286, 867

The word means to complete. When something is incomplete then is completed it is done and finished. Something new then can be started and this is what Christ came to do. The old law was completed so a new law (which is a new Covenant) could be introduced.

It wouldn't be proper to introduce a new law if the old one was not completed and only following that law perfectly could fulfill it.

So the old law was fulfilled and completed and could then be replaced by a new law. This makes the first law "old" which Paul said was decaying. He wanted to show how to let go of the old law and make the new law the one for believers to desire.
 
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DamianWarS

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It may “feel” that way to you, but I submit that is a product of antinomian teaching.
I do see the term antinomian very useful in this context. It just turns the issue into "us" and "them" and picks sides (and it would seem you are on the nomian side) when it boils down to it all this is saying is 'their' teaching is wrong but not 'my' teaching is not. What other sorts of teaching are you expecting to contrast yours?
 
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visionary

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Our study of Is.28 clearly shows Hahalacha, the Hebrew Laws have not been abolished for Israel, its how we define ourselves as Israel (and not salvatic). It was therefore in making these laws, for identity, not salvation that brought their fulfillment,
 
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Jesus says "I have not come to abolish [Law or the Prophets] but to fulfill them." Immediately abolish is contrasted with fulfill.

As we read the passage abolish is paralleled with the law passing away and then again in with relaxing the law and finally, we have the consequence. These are grouped together as follows:
  • Abolish
  • law passing away
  • relaxes one of the least
  • will never enter the kingdom of heaven
so it's agreed we are not looking for those things. But Jesus didn't come to do these things he came to fulfill so let's focus on what Jesus came to do, not what he didn't come to do. So the question is has Jesus fulfilled the law and if the law is not abolished but fulfilled what is the net difference?

This reminds me of a verse in Lk 24:44!
 
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Soyeong

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Jesus says "I have not come to abolish [Law or the Prophets] but to fulfill them." Immediately abolish is contrasted with fulfill.

As we read the passage abolish is paralleled with the law passing away and then again in with relaxing the law and finally, we have the consequence. These are grouped together as follows:
  • Abolish
  • law passing away
  • relaxes one of the least
  • will never enter the kingdom of heaven
so it's agreed we are not looking for those things. But Jesus didn't come to do these things he came to fulfill so let's focus on what Jesus came to do, not what he didn't come to do. So the question is has Jesus fulfilled the law and if the law is not abolished but fulfilled what is the net difference?

"To fulfill the Torah" means "to cause God's will as made known in His law to be obeyed as it should be” (NAS Greek Lexicon pleroo 2c3). After Jesus said he came to fulfill the Torah in Matthew 5, he proceeded to fulfill it six times throughout the rest of the chapter by teaching how to correctly obey it or by completing our understanding of it. In Galatians 5:14, loving our neighbor fulfills the entire law, so it refers to something that countless people have done, not to something unique that only Jesus did. In Galatians 6:2, bearing one another's burdens fulfills the Law of Christ, so you should interpret that in the same way as you interpret fulfilling the Law of Moses. Instructions for how to act in accordance with God's nature can't be abolished without first abolishing God, so there quite a bit of difference between abolishing the Torah and fulfilling it. All of God's righteous laws are eternal (Psalms 119:160), so none of them will ever be abolished.
 
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